One Big Beautiful Bill Act

(3) Exceptions Paragraph (2) shall not apply to an individual if the individual is— (A) under 18, or over 65, years of age; (B) medically certified as physically or mentally unfit for employment; (C) a parent or other member of a household with responsibility for a dependent child under 14 years of age; (D) otherwise exempt under subsection (d)(2); (E) a pregnant woman; (F) an Indian or an Urban Indian (as such terms are defined in paragraphs (13) and (28) of section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act); or (G) a California Indian described in section 809(a) of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act.

Subject to clause (iii), beginning in fiscal year 2028, if the payment error rate of a State as determined under clause (ii) is— (I) less than 6 percent, the Federal share of the cost of the allotment described in paragraph (1) for that State in a fiscal year shall be 100 percent, and the State share shall be 0 percent; (II) equal to or greater than 6 percent but less than 8 percent, the Federal share of the cost of the allotment described in paragraph (1) for that State in a fiscal year shall be 95 percent, and the State share shall be 5 percent; (III) equal to or greater than 8 percent but less than 10 percent, the Federal share of the cost of the allotment described in paragraph (1) for that State in a fiscal year shall be 90 percent, and the State share shall be 10 percent; and (IV) equal to or greater than 10 percent, the Federal share of the cost of the allotment described in paragraph (1) for that State in a fiscal year shall be 85 percent, and the State share shall be 15 percent.

The Secretary may not pay towards the cost of an allotment described in paragraph (1) an amount that is greater than the applicable Federal share under paragraph (2).

For fiscal year 2028, to calculate the applicable State share under clause (i), a State may elect to use the payment error rate of the State from fiscal year 2025 or 2026.

For fiscal year 2029 and each fiscal year thereafter, to calculate the applicable State share under clause (i), the Secretary shall use the payment error rate of the State for the third fiscal year preceding the fiscal year for which the State share is being calculated.

(I) Fiscal year 2025 If, for fiscal year 2025, the payment error rate of a State multiplied by 1.5 is equal to or above 20 percent, the implementation date under clause (i) for that State shall be fiscal year 2029. (II) Fiscal year 2026 If, for fiscal year 2026, the payment error rate of a State multiplied by 1.5 is equal to or above 20 percent, the implementation date under clause (i) for that State shall be fiscal year 2030.

(b) Limitation on authority Section 13(a)(1) of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2022(a)(1)) is amended in the first sentence by inserting or the payment or disposition of a State share under section 4(a)(2) after 16(c)(1)(D)(i)(II).

Section 502(b)(3) of the Federal Crop Insurance Act (7 U.S.C. 1502(b)(3)) is amended by striking 5 and inserting 10.

In addition to any other provision of this subsection (except paragraph (2)(A)) regarding payment of a portion of premiums, a beginning farmer or rancher shall receive additional premium assistance

(i) For each of the first and second reinsurance years that a beginning farmer or rancher participates as a beginning farmer or rancher in the applicable policy or plan of insurance, 5 percentage points. (ii) For the third reinsurance year that a beginning farmer or rancher participates as a beginning farmer or rancher in the applicable policy or plan of insurance, 3 percentage points. (iii) For the fourth reinsurance year that a beginning farmer or rancher participates as a beginning farmer or rancher in the applicable policy or plan of insurance, 1 percentage point.

In addition to amounts otherwise available, there are appropriated to the Secretary of Defense for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029

(3) $1,000,000,000 for Army, Navy, Air Force, and Space Force sustainment, restoration, and modernization of military unaccompanied housing; (4) $2,000,000,000 for the Defense Health Program; (5) $2,900,000,000 to supplement the basic allowance for housing payable to members of the Army, Air Force, Navy, Marine Corps, and Space Force , notwithstanding section 403 of title 37, United States Code;

(8) $100,000,000 for tuition assistance for members of the Army, Air Force, Navy, Marine Corps, and Space Force pursuant to title 10, United States Code; (9) $100,000,000 for child care fee assistance for members of the Army, Air Force, Navy, Marine Corps, and Space Force under part II of chapter 88 of title 10, United States Code; (10) $590,000,000 to increase the Temporary Lodging Expense Allowance under chapter 8 of title 37, United States Code, to 21 days;

(12) $10,000,000 for military spouse professional licensure under section 1784 of title 10, United States Code; (13) $6,000,000 for Armed Forces Retirement Home facilities; (14) $100,000,000 for the Defense Community Infrastructure Program; (15) $100,000,000 for Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency (DARPA) casualty care research; and (16) $62,000,000 for modernization of Department of Defense childcare center staffing.

20010. Enhancement of Department of Defense resources for improving the readiness of the Department of Defense In addition to amounts otherwise available, there are appropriated to the Secretary of Defense for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029— (1) $1,400,000,000 for a pilot program on OPN-8 maritime spares and repair rotable pool; (2) $700,000,000 for a pilot program on OPN-8 maritime spares and repair rotable pool for amphibious ships; (3) $2,118,000,000 for spares and repairs to keep Air Force aircraft mission capable; (4) $1,500,000,000 for Army depot modernization and capacity enhancement; (5) $2,000,000,000 for Navy depot and shipyard modernization and capacity enhancement; (6) $250,000,000 for Air Force depot modernization and capacity enhancement; (7) $1,640,000,000 for Special Operations Command equipment, readiness, and operations; (8) $500,000,000 for National Guard unit readiness; (9) $400,000,000 for Marine Corps readiness and capabilities; (10) $20,000,000 for upgrades to Marine Corps utility helicopters; (11) $310,000,000 for next-generation vertical lift, assault, and intra-theater aeromedical evacuation aircraft; (12) $75,000,000 for the procurement of anti-lock braking systems for Army wheeled transport vehicles; (13) $230,000,000 for the procurement of Army wheeled combat vehicles; (14) $63,000,000 for the development of advanced rotary-wing engines; (15) $241,000,000 for the development, procurement, and integration of Marine Corps amphibious vehicles; (16) $250,000,000 for the procurement of Army tracked combat transport vehicles; (17) $98,000,000 for additional Army light rotary-wing capabilities; (18) $1,500,000,000 for increased depot maintenance and shipyard maintenance activities; (19) $2,500,000,000 for Air Force facilities sustainment, restoration, and modernization; (20) $92,500,000 for the completion of Robotic Combat Vehicle prototyping; (21) $125,000,000 for Army operations; (22) $10,000,000 for the Air Force Concepts, Development, and Management Office; and (23) $320,000,000 for Joint Special Operations Command.

Source snapshot updated 2026-09-19T23:26:15Z.

2025-07-01: Passed Senate with an amendment by Yea-Nay Vote. 51 - 50. Record Vote Number: 372.

2025-07-03: On motion that the House agree to the Senate amendment Agreed to by recorded vote: 218 - 214 (Roll no. 190). (text: CR H3059-3143)

2025-07-04: Became Public Law No: 119-21.

2025-07-04: Signed by President.

(B) the cost of the thrifty food plan shall be the basis for uniform allotments for all households, regardless of the actual composition of the household;

(C) on October 1, 2025, and on each October 1 thereafter, adjust the cost of the thrifty food plan to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers, published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor, for the most recent 12-month period ending in June.

(A) Re-evaluation Not earlier than October 1, 2027, the Secretary may re-evaluate the market baskets of the thrifty food plan based on current food prices, food composition data, consumption patterns, and dietary guidance. (B) Cost neutrality The Secretary shall not increase the cost of the thrifty food plan based on a re-evaluation under this paragraph.

The Secretary shall make household adjustments using the following ratios of household size as a percentage of the maximum 4-person allotment: (A) For a 1-person household, 30 percent. (B) For a 2-person household, 55 percent. (C) For a 3-person household, 79 percent. (D) For a 4-person household, 100 percent. (E) For a 5-person household, 119 percent. (F) For a 6-person household, 143 percent. (G) For a 7-person household, 158 percent. (H) For an 8-person household, 180 percent. (I) For a household of 9 persons or more, an additional 22 percent per person, which additional percentage shall not total more than 200 percent.

(A) make cost adjustments in the thrifty food plan for Hawaii and the urban and rural parts of Alaska to reflect the cost of food in Hawaii and urban and rural Alaska; (B) make cost adjustments in the separate thrifty food plans for Guam and the Virgin Islands of the United States to reflect the cost of food in those States, but not to exceed the cost of food in the 50 States and the District of Columbia;

(3) Exceptions Paragraph (2) shall not apply to an individual if the individual is— (A) under 18, or over 65, years of age; (B) medically certified as physically or mentally unfit for employment; (C) a parent or other member of a household with responsibility for a dependent child under 14 years of age; (D) otherwise exempt under subsection (d)(2); (E) a pregnant woman; (F) an Indian or an Urban Indian (as such terms are defined in paragraphs (13) and (28) of section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act); or (G) a California Indian described in section 809(a) of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act.

(ii) is in a noncontiguous State and has an unemployment rate that is at or above 1.5 times the national unemployment rate.

the term noncontiguous State means a State that is not 1 of the contiguous 48 States or the District of Columbia. (ii) Exclusions The term noncontiguous State does not include Guam or the Virgin Islands of the United States.

(ii) Exclusions In this paragraph, the term noncontiguous State does not include Guam or the Virgin Islands of the United States.

the Secretary may exempt individuals in a noncontiguous State from compliance with the requirements of paragraph (2) if— (i) the State agency submits to the Secretary a request for that exemption, made in such form and at such time as the Secretary may require, and including the information described in subparagraph (C); and (ii) the Secretary determines that based on that request, the State agency is demonstrating a good faith effort to comply with the requirements of paragraph (2).

An exemption granted under subparagraph (B) shall expire not later than December 31, 2028, and may not be renewed beyond that date.

The Secretary may terminate an exemption granted under subparagraph (B) prior to the expiration date of that exemption if the Secretary determines that the State agency— (I) has failed to comply with the reporting requirements described in subparagraph (E); or (II) based on the information provided pursuant to subparagraph (E), failed to make continued good faith efforts toward compliance with the requirements of this subsection.

(i) quarterly progress reports on the status of the State agency in achieving the milestones toward full compliance described in subparagraph (C)(iii); and (ii) information on specific risks or newly identified barriers or challenges to full compliance, including the plan of the State agency to mitigate those risks, barriers, or challenges.

is amended by inserting with an elderly or disabled member after households.

(1) in subparagraph (A), by inserting without an elderly or disabled member before shall be; and (2) in subparagraph (B), by inserting with an elderly or disabled member before under a State law.

Any service fee associated with internet connection shall not be used in computing the excess shelter expense deduction under this paragraph.

Subject to clause (iii), beginning in fiscal year 2028, if the payment error rate of a State as determined under clause (ii) is— (I) less than 6 percent, the Federal share of the cost of the allotment described in paragraph (1) for that State in a fiscal year shall be 100 percent, and the State share shall be 0 percent; (II) equal to or greater than 6 percent but less than 8 percent, the Federal share of the cost of the allotment described in paragraph (1) for that State in a fiscal year shall be 95 percent, and the State share shall be 5 percent; (III) equal to or greater than 8 percent but less than 10 percent, the Federal share of the cost of the allotment described in paragraph (1) for that State in a fiscal year shall be 90 percent, and the State share shall be 10 percent; and (IV) equal to or greater than 10 percent, the Federal share of the cost of the allotment described in paragraph (1) for that State in a fiscal year shall be 85 percent, and the State share shall be 15 percent.

The Secretary may not pay towards the cost of an allotment described in paragraph (1) an amount that is greater than the applicable Federal share under paragraph (2).

For fiscal year 2028, to calculate the applicable State share under clause (i), a State may elect to use the payment error rate of the State from fiscal year 2025 or 2026.

For fiscal year 2029 and each fiscal year thereafter, to calculate the applicable State share under clause (i), the Secretary shall use the payment error rate of the State for the third fiscal year preceding the fiscal year for which the State share is being calculated.

(I) Fiscal year 2025 If, for fiscal year 2025, the payment error rate of a State multiplied by 1.5 is equal to or above 20 percent, the implementation date under clause (i) for that State shall be fiscal year 2029. (II) Fiscal year 2026 If, for fiscal year 2026, the payment error rate of a State multiplied by 1.5 is equal to or above 20 percent, the implementation date under clause (i) for that State shall be fiscal year 2030.

(b) Limitation on authority Section 13(a)(1) of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2022(a)(1)) is amended in the first sentence by inserting or the payment or disposition of a State share under section 4(a)(2) after 16(c)(1)(D)(i)(II).

by striking agency an amount equal to 50 per centum and inserting agency, through fiscal year 2026, 50 percent, and for fiscal year 2027 and each fiscal year thereafter, 25 percent,

is amended by striking for fiscal year 2016 and each subsequent fiscal year and inserting for each of fiscal years 2016 through 2025.

No individual who is a member of a household otherwise eligible to participate in the supplemental nutrition assistance program under this section shall be eligible to participate in the supplemental nutrition assistance program as a member of that or any other household unless he or she is— (1) a resident of the United States; and (2) either— (A) a citizen or national of the United States; (B) an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence as an immigrant as defined by sections 101(a)(15) and 101(a)(20) of the Immigration and Nationality Act, excluding, among others, alien visitors, tourists, diplomats, and students who enter the United States temporarily with no intention of abandoning their residence in a foreign country; (C) an alien who has been granted the status of Cuban and Haitian entrant, as defined in section 501(e) of the Refugee Education Assistance Act of 1980 (Public Law 96–422); or (D) an individual who lawfully resides in the United States in accordance with a Compact of Free Association referred to in section 402(b)(2)(G) of the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996.

The income (less, at State option, a pro rata share) and financial resources of the individual rendered ineligible to participate in the supplemental nutrition assistance program under this subsection shall be considered in determining the eligibility and the value of the allotment of the household of which such individual is a member.

The unobligated balances of amounts appropriated by the following provisions of Public Law 117–169 are rescinded: (1) Paragraphs (3) and (4) of section 23001(a) (136 Stat. 2023). (2) Paragraphs (1) through (4) of section 23002(a) (136 Stat. 2025). (3) Section 23003(a)(2) (136 Stat. 2026). (4) Section 23005 (136 Stat. 2027).

is amended by striking 85 and inserting beginning with the crop year 2025, 88.

Effective beginning with the 2025 crop year, subject to subparagraphs (B) and (C), the term reference price, with respect to a covered commodity for a crop year, means the following: (i) For wheat, $6.35 per bushel. (ii) For corn, $4.10 per bushel. (iii) For grain sorghum, $4.40 per bushel. (iv) For barley, $5.45 per bushel. (v) For oats, $2.65 per bushel. (vi) For long grain rice, $16.90 per hundredweight. (vii) For medium grain rice, $16.90 per hundredweight. (viii) For soybeans, $10.00 per bushel. (ix) For other oilseeds, $23.75 per hundredweight. (x) For peanuts, $630.00 per ton. (xi) For dry peas, $13.10 per hundredweight. (xii) For lentils, $23.75 per hundredweight. (xiii) For small chickpeas, $22.65 per hundredweight. (xiv) For large chickpeas, $25.65 per hundredweight. (xv) For seed cotton, $0.42 per pound.

Effective beginning with the 2031 crop year, the reference prices defined in subparagraph (A) with respect to a covered commodity shall equal the reference price in the previous crop year multiplied by 1.005. (C) Limitation In no case shall a reference price for a covered commodity exceed 113 percent of the reference price for such covered commodity listed in subparagraph (A).

As soon as practicable after the date of enactment of this subsection, and notwithstanding subsection (a), the Secretary shall provide notice to owners of eligible farms pursuant to paragraph (3) and allocate to those eligible farms a total of not more than an additional 30,000,000 base acres in the manner provided in this subsection. An owner of a farm that is eligible to receive an allocation of base acres may elect to not receive that allocation by notifying the Secretary not later than 90 days after receipt of the notice provided by the Secretary under this paragraph.

(B) Information regarding the eligibility of the farm for an allocation of base acres under paragraph (3). (C) Information regarding how an owner may appeal a determination of ineligibility for an allocation of base acres under paragraph (3) through an appeals process established by the Secretary.

Subject to subparagraph (D), effective beginning with the 2026 crop year, a farm is eligible to receive an allocation of base acres if, with respect to the farm, the amount described in subparagraph (B) exceeds the amount described in subparagraph (C).

if the total number of eligible acres allocated to base acres across all farms in the United States under this subsection would exceed 30,000,000 acres, the Secretary shall apply an across-the-board, pro-rata reduction to the number of eligible acres to ensure the number of allocated base acres under this subsection is equal to 30,000,000 acres.

(i) the 5-year average of— (I) the acreage planted on the farm to all covered commodities for harvest, grazing, haying, silage or other similar purposes for the 2019 through 2023 crop years; and (II) any acreage on the farm that the producers were prevented from planting during the 2019 through 2023 crop years to covered commodities because of drought, flood, or other natural disaster, or other condition beyond the control of the producers, as determined by the Secretary; plus (ii) the lesser of— (I) 15 percent of the total acres on the farm; and (II) the 5-year average of— (aa) the acreage planted on the farm to eligible noncovered commodities for harvest, grazing, haying, silage, or other similar purposes for the 2019 through 2023 crop years; and (bb) any acreage on the farm that the producers were prevented from planting during the 2019 through 2023 crop years to eligible noncovered commodities because of drought, flood, or other natural disaster, or other condition beyond the control of the producers, as determined by the Secretary.

the total number of base acres for covered commodities on the farm (excluding unassigned crop base), as in effect on September 30, 2024.

In the case of a farm for which the amount determined under clause (i) of subparagraph (B) is equal to zero, that farm shall be ineligible to receive an allocation of base acres under this subsection.

The allocation of additional base acres among covered commodities on a farm under this paragraph may not result in a total number of base acres for the farm in excess of the total number of acres on the farm.

Beginning with crop year 2026, for the purpose of making price loss coverage payments under section 1116, the Secretary shall establish payment yields to base acres allocated under this subsection equal to— (A) the payment yield established on the farm for the applicable covered commodity; and (B) if no such payment yield for the applicable covered commodity exists, a payment yield— (i) equal to the average payment yield for the covered commodity for the county in which the farm is situated; or (ii) determined pursuant to section 1113(c).

the Secretary shall use the planting history of the prior owner or owners of that farm for purposes of determining— (A) eligibility under paragraph (3); (B) eligible acres under paragraph (4); and (C) the allocation of acres under paragraph (5).

For the 2025 crop year, the Secretary shall, on a covered commodity-by-covered commodity basis, make the higher of price loss coverage payments under section 1116 and agriculture risk coverage county coverage payments under section 1117 to the producers on a farm for the payment acres for each covered commodity on the farm.

(1) in subsection (a), in the matter preceding paragraph (1), by striking 2023 and inserting 2031;

is amended by striking Crops for which the producer has elected under section 1116 of the Agricultural Act of 2014 to receive agriculture risk coverage and acres and inserting Acres

(1) in subsection (a)(2), in the matter preceding subparagraph (A), by striking 2023 and inserting 2031;

(3) in subsection (d), in the matter preceding paragraph (1), by striking 2025 and inserting 2031;

by striking 2012 through 2016 each place it appears and inserting 2017 through 2021.

by inserting for each of the 2014 through 2024 crop years and 90 percent of the benchmark revenue for each of the 2025 through 2031 crop years before the period at the end;

(B) (i) for each of the 2014 through 2024 crop years, 10 percent of the benchmark revenue for the crop year applicable under subsection (c); and (ii) for each of the 2025 through 2031 crop years, 12 percent of the benchmark revenue for the crop year applicable under subsection (c).

(4) in subsections (e), (g)(5), and (i)(5), by striking 2023 each place it appears and inserting 2031.

The term qualified pass-through entity means— (A) a partnership (within the meaning of subchapter K of chapter 1 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986); (B) an S corporation (as defined in section 1361 of that Code); (C) a limited liability company that does not affirmatively elect to be treated as a corporation; and (D) a joint venture or general partnership.

in subsections (b) and (c), by striking except a joint venture or general partnership each place it appears and inserting except a qualified pass-through entity;

(b) Attribution of payments Section 1001(e)(3)(B)(ii) of the Food Security Act of 1985 (7 U.S.C. 1308(e)(3)(B)(ii)) is amended— (1) in the clause heading, by striking joint ventures and general partnerships and inserting qualified pass-through entities; (2) by striking a joint venture or a general partnership and inserting a qualified pass-through entity; (3) by striking joint ventures and general partnerships and inserting qualified pass-through entities; and (4) by striking the joint venture or general partnership and inserting the qualified pass-through entity.

(c) Persons actively engaged in farming Section 1001A(b)(2) of the Food Security Act of 1985 (7 U.S.C. 1308–1(b)(2)) is amended— (1) subparagraphs (A) and (B), by striking a general partnership, a participant in a joint venture each place it appears and inserting a qualified pass-through entity; and (2) in subparagraph (C), by striking a general partnership, joint venture, or similar entity and inserting a qualified pass-through entity or a similar entity.

(d) Joint and several liability Section 1001B(d) of the Food Security Act of 1985 (7 U.S.C. 1308–2(d)) is amended by striking partnerships and joint ventures and inserting qualified pass-through entities. (e) Exclusion from AGI calculation Section 1001D(d) of the Food Security Act of 1985 (7 U.S.C. 1308–3a(d)) is amended by striking , general partnership, or joint venture each place it appears.

(1) in subsection (b)— (A) by striking The and inserting Subject to subsection (i), the; and (B) by striking $125,000 and inserting $155,000; (2) in subsection (c)— (A) by striking The and inserting Subject to subsection (i), the; and (B) by striking $125,000 and inserting $155,000;

For the 2025 crop year and each crop year thereafter, the Secretary shall annually adjust the amounts described in subsections (b) and (c) for inflation based on the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor.

The term excepted payment or benefit means— (I) a payment or benefit under subtitle E of title I of the Agricultural Act of 2014 (7 U.S.C. 9081 et seq.); (II) a payment or benefit under section 196 of the Federal Agriculture Improvement and Reform Act of 1996 (7 U.S.C. 7333); and (III) a payment or benefit described in paragraph (2)(C) received on or after October 1, 2024.

The term farming, ranching, or silviculture activities includes agri-tourism, direct-to-consumer marketing of agricultural products, the sale of agricultural equipment owned by the person or legal entity, and other agriculture-related activities, as determined by the Secretary.

the limitation established by paragraph (1) shall not apply to a person or legal entity during a crop, fiscal, or program year, as appropriate, if greater than or equal to 75 percent of the average gross income of the person or legal entity derives from farming, ranching, or silviculture activities.

Section 1201(b)(1) of the Agricultural Act of 2014 (7 U.S.C. 9031(b)(1)) is amended by striking 2023 and inserting 2031.

For purposes of each of the 2026 through 2031 crop years, the loan rate for a marketing assistance loan under section 1201 for a loan commodity shall be equal to the following: (1) In the case of wheat, $3.72 per bushel. (2) In the case of corn, $2.42 per bushel. (3) In the case of grain sorghum, $2.42 per bushel. (4) In the case of barley, $2.75 per bushel. (5) In the case of oats, $2.20 per bushel. (6) In the case of upland cotton, $0.55 per pound. (7) In the case of extra long staple cotton, $1.00 per pound.

(10) In the case of soybeans, $6.82 per bushel.

Effective for each of the 2026 through 2031 crop years, the Secretary shall make cotton storage payments for upland cotton and extra long staple cotton available in the same manner as the Secretary provided storage payments for the 2006 crop of upland cotton, except that the payment rate shall be equal to the lesser of— (A) the submitted storage charge for the current marketing year; and (B) in the case of storage in— (i) California or Arizona, a payment rate of $4.90; and (ii) any other State, a payment rate of $3.00.

(d) Loan deficiency payments (1) Continuation Section 1205(a)(2)(B) of the Agricultural Act of 2014 (7 U.S.C. 9035(a)(2)(B)) is amended by striking 2023 and inserting 2031.

(e) Special competitive provisions for extra long staple cotton Section 1208(a) of the Agricultural Act of 2014 (7 U.S.C. 9038(a)) is amended, in the matter preceding paragraph (1), by striking 2026 and inserting 2032. (f) Availability of recourse loans Section 1209 of the Agricultural Act of 2014 (7 U.S.C. 9039) is amended, in subsections (a)(2), (b), and (c), by striking 2023 each place it appears and inserting 2031.

the Secretary shall provide to the producer a refund (if any) in an amount equal to the difference between the lowest prevailing world market price, as determined and adjusted by the Secretary in accordance with this section, during the 30-day period following the date on which the producer repays the marketing assistance loan and the repayment rate.

In the case of upland cotton, for any period when price quotations for Middling (M) 13/32-inch cotton are available, the formula under paragraph (1)(A) shall be based on the average of the 3 lowest-priced growths that are quoted.

(A) shall be adjusted to United States quality and location, with the adjustment to include the average costs to market the commodity, including average transportation costs, as determined by the Secretary; and (B) may be further adjusted, during the period beginning on the date of enactment of the Act entitled An Act to provide for reconciliation pursuant to title II of H. Con. Res. 14 (119th Congress) and ending on July 31, 2032, if the Secretary determines the adjustment is necessary— (i) to minimize potential loan forfeitures; (ii) to minimize the accumulation of stocks of extra long staple cotton by the Federal Government; (iii) to ensure that extra long staple cotton produced in the United States can be marketed freely and competitively; and (iv) to ensure an appropriate transition between current-crop and forward-crop price quotations, except that the Secretary may use forward-crop price quotations prior to July 31 of a marketing year only if— (I) there are insufficient current-crop price quotations; and (II) the forward-crop price quotation is the lowest such quotation available.

The value of the assistance provided under paragraph (1) shall be— (A) for the period beginning on August 1, 2013, and ending on July 31, 2025, 3 cents per pound; and (B) beginning on August 1, 2025, 5 cents per pound.

(6) 24.00 cents per pound for raw cane sugar for each of the 2025 through 2031 crop years.

(3) a rate that is equal to 136.55 percent of the loan rate per pound of raw cane sugar under subsection (a)(6) for each of the 2025 through 2031 crop years.

For the 2025 crop year and each subsequent crop year, the Commodity Credit Corporation shall establish rates for the storage of forfeited sugar in an amount that is not less than— (1) in the case of refined sugar, 34 cents per hundredweight per month; and (2) in the case of raw cane sugar, 27 cents per hundredweight per month.

If the Secretary makes an upward adjustment under paragraph (1)(A), in adjusting allocations among beet sugar processors, the Secretary shall give priority to beet sugar processors with available sugar.

(i) make an initial determination based on the World Agricultural Supply and Demand Estimates approved by the World Agricultural Outlook Board for January that shall be applicable to the crop year for which allotments are required; and (ii) provide for an initial reassignment under subparagraph (A)(i) not later than 30 days after the date on which the World Agricultural Supply and Demand Estimates described in clause (i) is released.

(A) determine which countries do not intend to fulfill their allocation for the quota year; and (B) reallocate any forecasted shortfall in the fulfillment of the tariff-rate quotas as soon as practicable.

not later than March 1 of a quota year, the Secretary shall reallocate any additional forecasted shortfall in the fulfillment of the tariff-rate quotas for raw cane sugar

Paragraphs (1) and (2) shall cease to be in effect if— (A) the Agreement Suspending the Countervailing Duty Investigation on Sugar from Mexico, signed December 19, 2014, is terminated; and (B) no countervailing duty order under subtitle A of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1671 et seq.) is in effect with respect to sugar from Mexico.

Not later than 180 days after the date of enactment of this subsection, the Secretary shall conduct a study on whether the establishment of additional terms and conditions with respect to refined sugar imports is necessary and appropriate.

Not later than 1 year after the date of enactment of this subsection, the Secretary shall submit to the Committee on Agriculture of the House of Representatives and the Committee on Agriculture, Nutrition, and Forestry of the Senate a report

The Secretary may issue regulations under subparagraph (A) if the regulations— (i) do not have an adverse impact on the domestic sugar industry; and (ii) are consistent with the requirements of this part, section 156 of the Federal Agriculture Improvement and Reform Act of 1996 (7 U.S.C. 7272), and obligations under international trade agreements that have been approved by Congress.

the production history of a dairy operation for dairy margin coverage is equal to the highest annual milk marketings of the participating dairy operation during any 1 of the 2021, 2022, or 2023 calendar years.

In the case of a participating dairy operation that has been in operation for less than a year, the participating dairy operation shall elect 1 of the following methods for the Secretary to determine the production history of the participating dairy operation: (1) The volume of the actual milk marketings for the months the participating dairy operation has been in operation extrapolated to a yearly amount. (2) An estimate of the actual milk marketings of the participating dairy operation based on the herd size of the participating dairy operation relative to the national rolling herd average data published by the Secretary.

is amended by striking 5,000,000 each place it appears and inserting 6,000,000.

(c) Premiums for dairy margins (1) Tier i Section 1407(b) of the Agricultural Act of 2014 (7 U.S.C. 9057(b)) is amended— (A) in the subsection heading, by striking 5,000,000 and inserting 6,000,000; and (B) in paragraph (1), by striking 5,000,000 and inserting 6,000,000.

(i) by striking 2019 through 2023 and inserting 2026 through 2031; and (ii) by striking January 2019 and inserting January 2026;

(d) Duration Section 1409 of the Agricultural Act of 2014 (7 U.S.C. 9059) is amended by striking 2025 and inserting 2031.

$50,000,000, to remain available until expended, of which— (A) not less than $5,000,000 shall be used to carry out paragraphs (3) and (4) of subsection (b); (B) $3,000,000 shall be used for activities described in paragraph (3)(A); (C) $3,000,000 shall be used for activities described in paragraph (3)(B); (D) $9,000,000 shall be used— (i) to carry out mandatory surveys of dairy production cost and product yield information to be reported by manufacturers required to report under section 273 of the Agricultural Marketing Act of 1946 (7 U.S.C. 1637b), for all products processed in the same facility or facilities; and (ii) to publish the results of such surveys biennially; and (E) $1,000,000 shall be used to conduct the study under subsection (d) of section 359k of the Agricultural Adjustment Act of 1938 (7 U.S.C. 1359kk).

(A) Losses due to predation Indemnity payments to an eligible producer on a farm under paragraph (1)(A) shall be made at a rate of 100 percent of the market value of the affected livestock on the applicable date, as determined by the Secretary. (B) Losses due to adverse weather or disease Indemnity payments to an eligible producer on a farm under subparagraph (B) or (C) of paragraph (1) shall be made at a rate of 75 percent of the market value of the affected livestock on the applicable date, as determined by the Secretary.

the Secretary may consider the ability of eligible producers to document regional price premiums for affected livestock that exceed the national average market price for those livestock.

(i) the day before the date of death of the livestock; or (ii) the day before the date of the event that caused the harm to the livestock that resulted in a reduced sale price.

In the case of unborn livestock death losses incurred on or after January 1, 2024, the Secretary shall make an additional payment to eligible producers on farms that have incurred such losses in excess of the normal mortality due to a condition specified in paragraph (1).

less than or equal to 85 percent of the payment rate established with respect to the lowest weight class of the livestock

(i) subparagraph (A), (B), or (F) of subsection (a)(4), by 1; (ii) subparagraph (D) of such subsection, by 2; (iii) subparagraph (E) of such subsection, by 12; and (iv) subparagraph (G) of such subsection, by the average number of birthed animals (for one gestation cycle) for the species of each such livestock, as determined by the Secretary.

(1) by striking 1 monthly payment and inserting 2 monthly payments;

(aa) 4 consecutive weeks during the normal grazing period for the county, as determined by the Secretary, shall be eligible to receive assistance under this paragraph in an amount equal to 1 monthly payment using the monthly payment rate determined under subparagraph (B); or (bb) 7 of the previous 8 consecutive

the term farm-raised fish means fish propagated and reared in a controlled fresh water environment.

Eligible producers of farm-raised fish, including fish grown as food for human consumption, shall be eligible to receive payments under this subsection to aid in the reduction of losses due to piscivorous birds.

The payment rate for payments under subparagraph (B) shall be not less than $600 per acre of farm-raised fish. (D) Payment amount The amount of a payment under subparagraph (B) shall be the product obtained by multiplying— (i) the applicable payment rate under subparagraph (C); and (ii) 85 percent of the total number of acres of farm-raised fish farms that the eligible producer has in production for the calendar year.

the Secretary shall utilize a normal mortality rate of 15 percent.

(1) in paragraph (2)(B), by striking 15 percent (adjusted for normal mortality) and inserting normal mortality;

(i) by striking 50 and inserting 65; and (ii) by striking 15 percent damage or mortality (adjusted for normal tree damage and mortality) and inserting normal tree damage or mortality.

Section 502(b)(3) of the Federal Crop Insurance Act (7 U.S.C. 1502(b)(3)) is amended by striking 5 and inserting 10.

In addition to any other provision of this subsection (except paragraph (2)(A)) regarding payment of a portion of premiums, a beginning farmer or rancher shall receive additional premium assistance

(i) For each of the first and second reinsurance years that a beginning farmer or rancher participates as a beginning farmer or rancher in the applicable policy or plan of insurance, 5 percentage points. (ii) For the third reinsurance year that a beginning farmer or rancher participates as a beginning farmer or rancher in the applicable policy or plan of insurance, 3 percentage points. (iii) For the fourth reinsurance year that a beginning farmer or rancher participates as a beginning farmer or rancher in the applicable policy or plan of insurance, 1 percentage point.

may be purchased at any level not to exceed— (I) in the case of the individual yield or revenue coverage, 85 percent; (II) in the case of individual yield or revenue coverage aggregated across multiple commodities, 90 percent; and (III) in the case of area yield or revenue coverage (as determined by the Corporation), 95 percent.

(A) in clause (ii), by striking 14 and inserting 10; and (B) in clause (iii)(I), by striking 86 and inserting 90. (b) Premium subsidy Section 508(e)(2)(H)(i) of the Federal Crop Insurance Act (7 U.S.C. 1508(e)(2)(H)(i)) is amended by striking 65 and inserting 80.

(1) in subparagraph (C)(i), by striking 64 and inserting 69; (2) in subparagraph (D)(i), by striking 59 and inserting 64; (3) in subparagraph (E)(i), by striking 55 and inserting 60; (4) in subparagraph (F)(i), by striking 48 and inserting 51; and (5) in subparagraph (G)(i), by striking 38 and inserting 41.

Beginning with the 2026 reinsurance year, and for each reinsurance year thereafter

the payment to an approved insurance provider required under subparagraph (A) shall be the amount equal to 6 percent of the net book premium.

does not include a contract for— (aa) catastrophic risk protection under subsection (b); (bb) an area-based plan of insurance or similar plan of insurance, as determined by the Corporation; or (cc) a policy under which an approved insurance provider does not incur loss adjustment expenses, as determined by the Corporation.

The term eligible State means a State in which, with respect to an insurance year, the loss ratio for eligible contracts is greater than 120 percent of the total net book premium written by all approved insurance providers.

shall be equal to or greater than the percentage that is the greater of the following: (i) 17 percent of the premium used to define loss ratio. (ii) The percent of the premium used to define loss ratio that is otherwise applicable for the reinsurance year under the terms of the Standard Reinsurance Agreement in effect for the reinsurance year.

the Corporation shall not reduce, with respect to any reinsurance year, the amount or the rate of reimbursement to approved insurance providers and agents

the Corporation shall increase the total administrative and operating expense reimbursements otherwise required under the Standard Reinsurance Agreement in effect for the reinsurance year in order to account for inflation

The increase under subparagraph (A) for the 2026 reinsurance year shall not exceed the percentage change for the preceding reinsurance year included in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers

(A) $4,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2009 through 2025; and (B) $6,000,000 for fiscal year 2026 and each subsequent fiscal year.

by striking for each fiscal year and inserting for each of fiscal years 2014 through 2025 and $10,000,000 for fiscal year 2026 and each fiscal year thereafter.

the Corporation shall establish a pilot program under which contract poultry growers, including growers of broilers and laying hens, may elect to receive index-based insurance from extreme weather-related risk resulting in increased utility costs (including costs of natural gas, propane, electricity, water, and other appropriate costs, as determined by the Corporation) associated with poultry production.

The Corporation shall engage with poultry industry stakeholders in establishing the pilot program

shall be conducted in a sufficient number of counties to provide a comprehensive evaluation of the feasibility, effectiveness, and demand among producers in the top poultry producing States, as determined by the Corporation.

the Board shall approve a policy or plan of insurance based on the pilot program under paragraph (1)— (A) in accordance with section 508(h); and (B) not later than 2 years after the date of enactment of this subsection.

(A) $625,000,000 for fiscal year 2026; (B) $650,000,000 for fiscal year 2027; (C) $675,000,000 for fiscal year 2028; (D) $700,000,000 for fiscal year 2029; (E) $700,000,000 for fiscal year 2030; and (F) $700,000,000 for fiscal year 2031.

(i) $2,655,000,000 for fiscal year 2026; (ii) $2,855,000,000 for fiscal year 2027; (iii) $3,255,000,000 for fiscal year 2028; (iv) $3,255,000,000 for fiscal year 2029; (v) $3,255,000,000 for fiscal year 2030; and (vi) $3,255,000,000 for fiscal year 2031;

(i) $1,300,000,000 for fiscal year 2026; (ii) $1,325,000,000 for fiscal year 2027; (iii) $1,350,000,000 for fiscal year 2028; (iv) $1,375,000,000 for fiscal year 2029; (v) $1,375,000,000 for fiscal year 2030; and (vi) $1,375,000,000 for fiscal year 2031.

Of the funds of the Commodity Credit Corporation, the Secretary shall use to carry out the program, to the maximum extent practicable— (1) $425,000,000 for fiscal year 2026; (2) $450,000,000 for fiscal year 2027; (3) $450,000,000 for fiscal year 2028; (4) $450,000,000 for fiscal year 2029; (5) $450,000,000 for fiscal year 2030; and (6) $450,000,000 for fiscal year 2031.

(C) $1,000,000 beginning in fiscal year 2026, to remain available until expended.

(d) Voluntary public access and habitat incentive program

and $70,000,000 for the period of fiscal years 2025 through 2031

by striking $50,000,000 for fiscal year 2019 and each fiscal year thereafter and inserting $150,000,000 for fiscal year 2026 and each fiscal year thereafter, to remain available until expended.

(f) Feral swine eradication and control pilot program

and $105,000,000 for the period of fiscal years 2025 through 2031

The unobligated balances of amounts appropriated by section 21001(a) of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2015) are rescinded.

The Secretary of Agriculture shall carry out a program to encourage the accessibility, development, maintenance, and expansion of commercial export markets for United States agricultural commodities.

Of the funds of the Commodity Credit Corporation, the Secretary of Agriculture shall make available to carry out this section $285,000,000 for fiscal year 2027 and each fiscal year thereafter.

Section 203D(d)(5) of the Emergency Food Assistance Act of 1983 (7 U.S.C. 7507(d)(5)) is amended by striking 2024 and inserting 2031.

Section 9005(g)(1)(F) of the Farm Security and Rural Investment Act of 2002 (7 U.S.C. 8105(g)(1)(F)) is amended by striking 2024 and inserting 2031.

(b) Foundation for Food and Agriculture Research

Not later than 30 days after the date of enactment of this clause, of the funds of the Commodity Credit Corporation, the Secretary shall transfer to the Foundation to carry out this section $37,000,000, to remain available until expended.

(c) Scholarships for students at 1890 Institutions

$60,000,000 for fiscal year 2026, to remain available until expended.

(d) Assistive technology program for farmers with disabilities

Subject to subsection (c)(2), of the funds of the Commodity Credit Corporation, the Secretary shall use to carry out this section $8,000,000 for fiscal year 2026, to remain available until expended.

Subject to subsections (b), (c), and (d), of the funds of the Commodity Credit Corporation, the Secretary shall make available to carry out the competitive grant program under section 4 $125,000,000 for fiscal year 2026 and each fiscal year thereafter.

by striking fiscal year 2024, to remain available until expended and inserting each of fiscal years 2024 through 2031.

(i) $80,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2014 through 2025; and (ii) $175,000,000 for fiscal year 2026

(a) Plant pest and disease management and disaster prevention

by striking $75,000,000 for fiscal year 2018 and inserting $90,000,000 for fiscal year 2026.

(b) Specialty crop block grants

by striking $85,000,000 for fiscal year 2018 and inserting $100,000,000 for fiscal year 2026.

(c) Organic production and market data initiative

(D) $10,000,000 for the period of fiscal years 2026 through 2031.

by striking and $1,000,000 for fiscal year 2024 and inserting , $1,000,000 for fiscal years 2024 and 2025, and $5,000,000 for fiscal year 2026.

(e) National organic certification cost-share program Section 10606(d)(1)(C) of the Farm Security and Rural Investment Act of 2002 (7 U.S.C. 6523(d)(1)(C)) is amended by striking 2024 and inserting 2031.

(f) Multiple crop and pesticide use survey

the Secretary shall use to carry out this section $5,000,000 for fiscal year 2026, to remain available until expended.

$233,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2026 through 2030, of which— (i) not less than $10,000,000 shall be made available for each such fiscal year to carry out subsection (a); (ii) not less than $70,000,000 shall be made available for each such fiscal year to carry out subsection (b); and (iii) not less than $153,000,000 shall be made available for each such fiscal year to carry out subsection (c).

$75,000,000 for fiscal year 2031 and each fiscal year thereafter, of which not less than $45,000,000 shall be made available for each of those fiscal years to carry out subsection (b).

(b) Sheep production and marketing grant program

by inserting and $3,000,000 for fiscal year 2026,

(c) Pima Agriculture Cotton Trust Fund Section 12314 of the Agricultural Act of 2014 (7 U.S.C. 2101 note; Public Law 113–79) is amended— (1) in subsection (b), in the matter preceding paragraph (1), by striking 2024 and inserting 2031; and (2) in subsection (h), by striking 2024and inserting 2031.

(d) Agriculture Wool Apparel Manufacturers Trust Fund Section 12315 of the Agricultural Act of 2014 (7 U.S.C. 7101 note; Public Law 113–79) is amended by striking 2024 each place it appears and inserting 2031. (e) Wool research and promotion Section 12316(a) of the Agricultural Act of 2014 (7 U.S.C. 7101 note; Public Law 113–79) is amended by striking 2024 and inserting 2031. (f) Emergency Citrus Disease Research and Development Trust Fund Section 12605(d) of the Agriculture Improvement Act of 2018 (7 U.S.C. 7632 note; Public Law 115–334) is amended by striking 2024 and inserting 2031.

In addition to amounts otherwise available, there are appropriated to the Secretary of Defense for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029

(3) $1,000,000,000 for Army, Navy, Air Force, and Space Force sustainment, restoration, and modernization of military unaccompanied housing; (4) $2,000,000,000 for the Defense Health Program; (5) $2,900,000,000 to supplement the basic allowance for housing payable to members of the Army, Air Force, Navy, Marine Corps, and Space Force , notwithstanding section 403 of title 37, United States Code;

(8) $100,000,000 for tuition assistance for members of the Army, Air Force, Navy, Marine Corps, and Space Force pursuant to title 10, United States Code; (9) $100,000,000 for child care fee assistance for members of the Army, Air Force, Navy, Marine Corps, and Space Force under part II of chapter 88 of title 10, United States Code; (10) $590,000,000 to increase the Temporary Lodging Expense Allowance under chapter 8 of title 37, United States Code, to 21 days;

(12) $10,000,000 for military spouse professional licensure under section 1784 of title 10, United States Code; (13) $6,000,000 for Armed Forces Retirement Home facilities; (14) $100,000,000 for the Defense Community Infrastructure Program; (15) $100,000,000 for Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency (DARPA) casualty care research; and (16) $62,000,000 for modernization of Department of Defense childcare center staffing.

During the period beginning on the date of the enactment of this section and ending on September 30, 2029, the Secretary concerned shall apply— (A) paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of section 2875 of title 10, United States Code, by substituting 60 percent for 33 1/3 percent; and (B) paragraph (2) of such subsection by substituting 60 percent for 45 percent.

In this subsection, the term Secretary concerned has the meaning given such term in section 101 of title 10, United States Code.

by striking Secretary of the Navy each place it appears and inserting Secretary concerned;

by striking carry out not more than three pilot projects under the authority of this section or another provision of this subchapter to use the private sector and inserting use the authority under this subchapter to enter into contracts with appropriate private sector entities;

by striking September 30, 2009 and inserting September 30, 2029.

there are appropriated to the Secretary of Defense for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029

(10) $500,000,000 for the adoption of advanced manufacturing techniques in the shipbuilding industrial base;

(13) $450,000,000 for additional maritime industrial workforce development programs;

(16) $4,600,000,000 for a second Virginia-class submarine in fiscal year 2026; (17) $5,400,000,000 for two additional Guided Missile Destroyer (DDG) ships; (18) $160,000,000 for advanced procurement for Landing Ship Medium; (19) $1,803,941,000 for procurement of Landing Ship Medium;

(23) $2,725,000,000 for the procurement of T-AO oilers;

(30) $1,534,000,000 for expansion of small unmanned surface vessel production; (31) $2,100,000,000 for development, procurement, and integration of purpose-built medium unmanned surface vessels; (32) $1,300,000,000 for expansion of unmanned underwater vehicle production;

there are appropriated to the Secretary of Defense for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029

(5) $5,600,000,000 for development of space-based and boost phase intercept capabilities; (6) $7,200,000,000 for the development, procurement, and integration of military space-based sensors; and (7) $2,550,000,000 for the development, procurement, and integration of military missile defense capabilities.

(1) $2,200,000,000 for acceleration of hypersonic defense systems;

(3) $408,000,000 for Army space and strategic missile test range infrastructure restoration and modernization in the United States Indo-Pacific Command area of operations west of the international dateline; (4) $1,975,000,000 for improved ground-based missile defense radars; and (5) $530,000,000 for the design and construction of Missile Defense Agency missile instrumentation range safety ship.

there are appropriated to the Secretary of Defense for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029

(1) $400,000,000 for the development, production, and integration of Navy and Air Force long-range anti-ship missiles;

(20) $400,000,000 for the production of heavyweight torpedoes;

(24) $500,000,000 for the development, procurement, and integration of maritime mines;

(31) $1,000,000,000 for the expansion of the one-way attack unmanned aerial systems industrial base;

(35) $1,000,000,000 for the creation of next-generation automated munitions production factories;

(39) $100,000,000 for the production of small and medium ammunition; (40) $2,000,000,000 for additional activities to improve the United States stockpile of critical minerals through the National Defense Stockpile Transaction Fund

(56) $500,000,000 for development, production, and integration of counter-unmanned aerial systems programs;

$3,300,000,000 for grants and purchase commitments made pursuant to the Industrial Base Fund

$5,000,000,000 for investments in critical minerals supply chains made pursuant to the Industrial Base Fund

to remain available until September 30, 2029, $500,000,000 to the Department of Defense Credit Program Account to carry out the capital assistance program, including loans, loan guarantees, and technical assistance, established under section 149(e) of title 10, United States Code, for critical minerals and related industries and projects, including related Covered Technology Categories:

(1) such amounts are available to subsidize gross obligations for the principal amount of direct loans, and total loan principal, any part of which is to be guaranteed, not to exceed $100,000,000,000; and (2) such amounts are available to cover all costs and expenditures as provided under section 149(e)(5)(B) of title 10, United States Code.

there are appropriated to the Secretary of Defense for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029

(2) $1,400,000,000 for the expansion of the small unmanned aerial system industrial base;

(15) $125,000,000 for the acceleration of development of small, portable modular nuclear reactors for military use;

(18) $2,000,000,000 for the expansion of Defense Innovation Unit scaling of commercial technology for military use;

(20) $1,500,000,000 for the development, procurement, and integration of low-cost cruise missiles;

(24) $250,000,000 for the advancement of the artificial intelligence ecosystem; (25) $250,000,000 for the expansion of Cyber Command artificial intelligence lines of effort; (26) $250,000,000 for the acceleration of the Quantum Benchmarking Initiative;

(29) $1,685,000,000 for military cryptographic modernization activities;

to remain available until September 30, 2029, $1,000,000,000 to the Department of Defense Credit Program Account to carry out the capital assistance program, including loans, loan guarantees, and technical assistance, established under section 149(e) of title 10, United States Code:

(1) such amounts are available to subsidize gross obligations for the principal amount of direct loans, and total loan principal, any part of which is to be guaranteed, not to exceed $100,000,000,000; and (2) such amounts are available to cover all costs and expenditures as provided under section 149(e)(5)(B) of title 10, United States Code.

there are appropriated to the Secretary of Defense for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029

(1) $150,000,000 for business systems replacement to accelerate the audits of the financial statements of the Department of Defense pursuant to chapter 9A and section 2222 of title 10, United States Code; (2) $200,000,000 for the deployment of automation and artificial intelligence to accelerate the audits of the financial statements of the Department of Defense pursuant to chapter 9A and section 2222 of title 10, United States Code; (3) $10,000,000 for the improvement of the budgetary and programmatic infrastructure of the Office of the Secretary of Defense; and (4) $20,000,000 for defense cybersecurity programs of the Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency.

there are appropriated to the Secretary of Defense for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029

(1) $3,150,000,000 to increase F–15EX aircraft production; (2) $361,220,000 to prevent the retirement of F–22 aircraft; (3) $127,460,000 to prevent the retirement of F–15E aircraft; (4) $187,000,000 to accelerate installation of F–16 electronic warfare capability;

(9) $678,000,000 to accelerate the Collaborative Combat Aircraft program; (10) $400,000,000 to accelerate production of the F–47 aircraft; (11) $750,000,000 accelerate the FA/XX aircraft;

(15) $270,000,000 for development, procurement, and integration of Marine Corps unmanned combat aircraft;

(18) $600,000,000 for the development, procurement, and integration of Air Force long-range strike aircraft; and (19) $500,000,000 for the development, procurement, and integration of Navy long-range strike aircraft.

20008. Enhancement of resources for nuclear forces (a) DOD appropriations In addition to amounts otherwise available, there are appropriated to the Secretary of Defense for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029— (1) $2,500,000,000 for risk reduction activities for the Sentinel intercontinental ballistic missile program; (2) $4,500,000,000 only for expansion of production capacity of B–21 long-range bomber aircraft and the purchase of aircraft only available through the expansion of production capacity; (3) $500,000,000 for improvements to the Minuteman III intercontinental ballistic missile system; (4) $100,000,000 for capability enhancements to intercontinental ballistic missile reentry vehicles; (5) $148,000,000 for the expansion of D5 missile motor production; (6) $400,000,000 to accelerate the development of Trident D5LE2 submarine-launched ballistic missiles; (7) $2,000,000,000 to accelerate the development, procurement, and integration of the nuclear-armed sea-launched cruise missile; (8) $62,000,000 to convert Ohio-class submarine tubes to accept additional missiles, not to be obligated before March 1, 2026; (9) $168,000,000 to accelerate the production of the Survivable Airborne Operations Center program; (10) $65,000,000 to accelerate the modernization of nuclear command, control, and communications; (11) $210,300,000 for the increased production of MH–139 helicopters; and (12) $150,000,000 to accelerate the development, procurement, and integration of military nuclear weapons delivery programs. (b) NNSA appropriations In addition to amounts otherwise available, there are appropriated to the Administrator of the National Nuclear Security Administration for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029— (1) $200,000,000 to perform National Nuclear Security Administration Phase 1 studies pursuant to section 3211 of the National Nuclear Security Administration Act (50 U.S.C. 2401); (2) $540,000,000 to address deferred maintenance and repair needs of the National Nuclear Security Administration pursuant to section 3211 of the National Nuclear Security Administration Act (50 U.S.C. 2401); (3) $1,000,000,000 to accelerate the construction of National Nuclear Security Administration facilities pursuant to section 3211 of the National Nuclear Security Administration Act (50 U.S.C. 2401); (4) $400,000,000 to accelerate the development, procurement, and integration of the warhead for the nuclear-armed sea-launched cruise missile pursuant to section 3211 of the National Nuclear Security Administration Act (50 U.S.C. 2401); (5) $750,000,000 to accelerate primary capability modernization pursuant to section 3211 of the National Nuclear Security Administration Act (50 U.S.C. 2401); (6) $750,000,000 to accelerate secondary capability modernization pursuant to section 3211 of the National Nuclear Security Administration Act (50 U.S.C. 2401); (7) $120,000,000 to accelerate domestic uranium enrichment centrifuge deployment for defense purposes pursuant to section 3211 of the National Nuclear Security Administration Act (50 U.S.C. 2401); (8) $10,000,000 for National Nuclear Security Administration evaluation of spent fuel reprocessing technology; and (9) $115,000,000 for accelerating nuclear national security missions through artificial intelligence.

20009. Enhancement of Department of Defense resources to improve capabilities of United States Indo-Pacific Command In addition to amounts otherwise available, there are appropriated to the Secretary of Defense for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029— (1) $365,000,000 for Army exercises and operations in the Western Pacific area of operations; (2) $53,000,000 for Special Operations Command exercises and operations in the Western Pacific area of operations; (3) $47,000,000 for Marine Corps exercises and operations in Western Pacific area of operations; (4) $90,000,000 for Air Force exercises and operations in Western Pacific area of operations; (5) $532,600,000 for the Pacific Air Force biennial large-scale exercise; (6) $19,000,000 for the development of naval small craft capabilities; (7) $35,000,000 for military additive manufacturing capabilities in the United States Indo-Pacific Command area of operations west of the international dateline; (8) $450,000,000 for the development of airfields within the area of operations of United States Indo-Pacific Command; (9) $1,100,000,000 for development of infrastructure within the area of operations of United States Indo-Pacific Command; (10) $124,000,000 for mission networks for United States Indo-Pacific Command; (11) $100,000,000 for Air Force regionally based cluster pre-position base kits; (12) $115,000,000 for exploration and development of existing Arctic infrastructure; (13) $90,000,000 for the accelerated development of non-kinetic capabilities; (14) $20,000,000 for United States Indo-Pacific Command military exercises; (15) $143,000,000 for anti-submarine sonar arrays; (16) $30,000,000 for surveillance and reconnaissance capabilities for United States Africa Command; (17) $30,000,000 for surveillance and reconnaissance capabilities for United States Indo-Pacific Command; (18) $500,000,000 for the development, coordination, and deployment of economic competition effects within the Department of Defense; (19) $10,000,000 for the expansion of Department of Defense workforce for economic competition; (20) $1,000,000,000 for offensive cyber operations; (21) $500,000,000 for personnel and operations costs associated with forces assigned to United States Indo-Pacific Command; (22) $300,000,000 for the procurement of mesh network communications capabilities for Special Operations Command Pacific; (23) $850,000,000 for the replenishment of military articles; (24) $200,000,000 for acceleration of Guam Defense System program; (25) $68,000,000 for Space Force facilities improvements; (26) $150,000,000 for ground moving target indicator military satellites; (27) $528,000,000 for DARC and SILENTBARKER military space situational awareness programs; (28) $80,000,000 for Navy Operational Support Division; (29) $1,000,000,000 for the X–37B military spacecraft program; (30) $3,650,000,000 for the development, procurement, and integration of United States military satellites and the protection of United States military satellites. (31) $125,000,000 for the development, procurement, and integration of military space communications. (32) $350,000,000 for the development, procurement, and integration of military space command and control systems.

20010. Enhancement of Department of Defense resources for improving the readiness of the Department of Defense In addition to amounts otherwise available, there are appropriated to the Secretary of Defense for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029— (1) $1,400,000,000 for a pilot program on OPN-8 maritime spares and repair rotable pool; (2) $700,000,000 for a pilot program on OPN-8 maritime spares and repair rotable pool for amphibious ships; (3) $2,118,000,000 for spares and repairs to keep Air Force aircraft mission capable; (4) $1,500,000,000 for Army depot modernization and capacity enhancement; (5) $2,000,000,000 for Navy depot and shipyard modernization and capacity enhancement; (6) $250,000,000 for Air Force depot modernization and capacity enhancement; (7) $1,640,000,000 for Special Operations Command equipment, readiness, and operations; (8) $500,000,000 for National Guard unit readiness; (9) $400,000,000 for Marine Corps readiness and capabilities; (10) $20,000,000 for upgrades to Marine Corps utility helicopters; (11) $310,000,000 for next-generation vertical lift, assault, and intra-theater aeromedical evacuation aircraft; (12) $75,000,000 for the procurement of anti-lock braking systems for Army wheeled transport vehicles; (13) $230,000,000 for the procurement of Army wheeled combat vehicles; (14) $63,000,000 for the development of advanced rotary-wing engines; (15) $241,000,000 for the development, procurement, and integration of Marine Corps amphibious vehicles; (16) $250,000,000 for the procurement of Army tracked combat transport vehicles; (17) $98,000,000 for additional Army light rotary-wing capabilities; (18) $1,500,000,000 for increased depot maintenance and shipyard maintenance activities; (19) $2,500,000,000 for Air Force facilities sustainment, restoration, and modernization; (20) $92,500,000 for the completion of Robotic Combat Vehicle prototyping; (21) $125,000,000 for Army operations; (22) $10,000,000 for the Air Force Concepts, Development, and Management Office; and (23) $320,000,000 for Joint Special Operations Command.

there are appropriated to the Secretary of Defense for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029

(1) $3,150,000,000 to increase F–15EX aircraft production; (2) $361,220,000 to prevent the retirement of F–22 aircraft; (3) $127,460,000 to prevent the retirement of F–15E aircraft; (4) $187,000,000 to accelerate installation of F–16 electronic warfare capability

there is appropriated to the Coast Guard for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, $24,593,500,000, to remain available until September 30, 2029, notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2) of section 1105(a) and sections 1131, 1132, 1133, and 1156, to use expedited processes to procure or acquire new operational assets and systems

(4) $4,300,000,000 is provided for procurement of Offshore Patrol Cutters, equipment related to such cutters, and program management for such cutters

there is appropriated to the Administrator of the Federal Aviation Administration for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029— (1) $4,750,000,000 for telecommunications infrastructure modernization and systems upgrades; (2) $3,000,000,000 for radar systems replacement; (3) $500,000,000 for runway safety technologies, runway lighting systems, airport surface surveillance technologies, and to carry out section 347 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 2024

(7) $1,900,000,000 for necessary actions to construct a new air route traffic control center (in this subsection referred to as ARTCC): Provided, That not more than 2 percent of such amount is used for planning or administrative purposes: Provided further, That at least 3 existing ARTCCs are divested and integrated into the newly constructed ARTCC; (8) $100,000,000 to conduct an ARTCC Realignment and Consolidation Effort under which at least 10 existing ARTCCs are closed or consolidated to facilitate recapitalization of ARTCC facilities owned and operated by the Federal Aviation Administration

(1) Onshore oil and gas royalty rates Subsection (a) of section 50262 of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2056) is repealed, and any provision of law amended or repealed by that subsection is restored or revived as if that subsection had not been enacted into law. (2) Noncompetitive leasing Subsection (e) of section 50262 of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2057) is repealed, and any provision of law amended or repealed by that subsection is restored or revived as if that subsection had not been enacted into law.

The Secretary of the Interior shall immediately resume quarterly onshore oil and gas lease sales in compliance with the Mineral Leasing Act (30 U.S.C. 181 et seq.).

not later than 90 days after the date of enactment of this Act, the Secretary of the Interior shall make available for lease known recoverable coal resources of not less than 4,000,000 additional acres on Federal land located in the 48 contiguous States and Alaska subject to the jurisdiction of the Secretary, but which shall not include any Federal land within— (1) a National Monument; (2) a National Recreation Area; (3) a component of the National Wilderness Preservation System; (4) a component of the National Wild and Scenic Rivers System; (5) a component of the National Trails System; (6) a National Conservation Area; (7) a unit of the National Wildlife Refuge System; (8) a unit of the National Fish Hatchery System; or (9) a unit of the National Park System.

The term National Forest System does not include any forest reserve not created from the public domain.

For each of fiscal years 2026 through 2034, the Secretary shall sell timber annually on National Forest System land in a total quantity that is not less than 250,000,000 board-feet greater than the quantity of board-feet sold in the previous fiscal year. (B) Limitation The timber sales under subparagraph (A) shall be subject to the maximum allowable sale quantity of timber or the projected timber sale quantity under the applicable forest plan in effect on the date of enactment of this Act.

60001. Rescission of funding for clean heavy-duty vehicles The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 132 of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7432) are rescinded.

60002. Repeal of Greenhouse Gas Reduction Fund Section 134 of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7434) is repealed and the unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out that section (as in effect on the day before the date of enactment of this Act) are rescinded.

(A) make cost adjustments in the thrifty food plan for Hawaii and the urban and rural parts of Alaska to reflect the cost of food in Hawaii and urban and rural Alaska; (B) make cost adjustments in the separate thrifty food plans for Guam and the Virgin Islands of the United States to reflect the cost of food in those States, but not to exceed the cost of food in the 50 States and the District of Columbia; and (C) on October 1, 2025, and on each October 1 thereafter, adjust the cost of the thrifty food plan to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers, published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor, for the most recent 12-month period ending in June.

(3) Exceptions Paragraph (2) shall not apply to an individual if the individual is— (A) under 18, or over 65, years of age; (B) medically certified as physically or mentally unfit for employment; (C) a parent or other member of a household with responsibility for a dependent child under 14 years of age; (D) otherwise exempt under subsection (d)(2); (E) a pregnant woman; (F) an Indian or an Urban Indian (as such terms are defined in paragraphs (13) and (28) of section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act); or (G) a California Indian described in section 809(a) of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act.

there are appropriated to the Secretary of Defense for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029— (1) $1,400,000,000 for a pilot program on OPN-8 maritime spares and repair rotable pool; (2) $700,000,000 for a pilot program on OPN-8 maritime spares and repair rotable pool for amphibious ships; (3) $2,118,000,000 for spares and repairs to keep Air Force aircraft mission capable; (4) $1,500,000,000 for Army depot modernization and capacity enhancement; (5) $2,000,000,000 for Navy depot and shipyard modernization and capacity enhancement; (6) $250,000,000 for Air Force depot modernization and capacity enhancement; (7) $1,640,000,000 for Special Operations Command equipment, readiness, and operations; (8) $500,000,000 for National Guard unit readiness

The Secretary shall not increase the cost of the thrifty food plan based on a re-evaluation under this paragraph.

Source snapshot updated 2026-09-19T23:26:15Z.

2025-07-01: Passed Senate with an amendment by Yea-Nay Vote. 51 - 50. Record Vote Number: 372.

2025-07-03: On motion that the House agree to the Senate amendment Agreed to by recorded vote: 218 - 214 (Roll no. 190). (text: CR H3059-3143)

2025-07-04: Became Public Law No: 119-21.

2025-07-04: Signed by President.

using the items and quantities of food described in the report of the Department of Agriculture entitled Thrifty Food Plan, 2021, and each successor report updated pursuant to this subsection

the cost of the thrifty food plan shall be the basis for uniform allotments for all households, regardless of the actual composition of the household

(A) For a 1-person household, 30 percent. (B) For a 2-person household, 55 percent. (C) For a 3-person household, 79 percent. (D) For a 4-person household, 100 percent. (E) For a 5-person household, 119 percent. (F) For a 6-person household, 143 percent. (G) For a 7-person household, 158 percent. (H) For an 8-person household, 180 percent. (I) For a household of 9 persons or more, an additional 22 percent per person, which additional percentage shall not total more than 200 percent.

(A) make cost adjustments in the thrifty food plan for Hawaii and the urban and rural parts of Alaska to reflect the cost of food in Hawaii and urban and rural Alaska; (B) make cost adjustments in the separate thrifty food plans for Guam and the Virgin Islands of the United States to reflect the cost of food in those States, but not to exceed the cost of food in the 50 States and the District of Columbia; and (C) on October 1, 2025, and on each October 1 thereafter, adjust the cost of the thrifty food plan to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers, published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor, for the most recent 12-month period ending in June.

Not earlier than October 1, 2027, the Secretary may re-evaluate the market baskets of the thrifty food plan based on current food prices, food composition data, consumption patterns, and dietary guidance. (B) Cost neutrality The Secretary shall not increase the cost of the thrifty food plan based on a re-evaluation under this paragraph.

(3) Exceptions Paragraph (2) shall not apply to an individual if the individual is— (A) under 18, or over 65, years of age; (B) medically certified as physically or mentally unfit for employment; (C) a parent or other member of a household with responsibility for a dependent child under 14 years of age; (D) otherwise exempt under subsection (d)(2); (E) a pregnant woman; (F) an Indian or an Urban Indian (as such terms are defined in paragraphs (13) and (28) of section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act); or (G) a California Indian described in section 809(a) of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act.

(ii) is in a noncontiguous State and has an unemployment rate that is at or above 1.5 times the national unemployment rate.

the term noncontiguous State means a State that is not 1 of the contiguous 48 States or the District of Columbia. (ii) Exclusions In this paragraph, the term noncontiguous State does not include Guam or the Virgin Islands of the United States.

the Secretary may exempt individuals in a noncontiguous State from compliance with the requirements of paragraph (2) if— (i) the State agency submits to the Secretary a request for that exemption, made in such form and at such time as the Secretary may require, and including the information described in subparagraph (C); and (ii) the Secretary determines that based on that request, the State agency is demonstrating a good faith effort to comply with the requirements of paragraph (2).

An exemption granted under subparagraph (B) shall expire not later than December 31, 2028, and may not be renewed beyond that date.

The Secretary may terminate an exemption granted under subparagraph (B) prior to the expiration date of that exemption if the Secretary determines that the State agency— (I) has failed to comply with the reporting requirements described in subparagraph (E); or (II) based on the information provided pursuant to subparagraph (E), failed to make continued good faith efforts toward compliance with the requirements of this subsection.

(i) quarterly progress reports on the status of the State agency in achieving the milestones toward full compliance described in subparagraph (C)(iii); and (ii) information on specific risks or newly identified barriers or challenges to full compliance, including the plan of the State agency to mitigate those risks, barriers, or challenges.

there are appropriated to the Secretary of Defense for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029

(1) $3,150,000,000 to increase F–15EX aircraft production; (2) $361,220,000 to prevent the retirement of F–22 aircraft; (3) $127,460,000 to prevent the retirement of F–15E aircraft; (4) $187,000,000 to accelerate installation of F–16 electronic warfare capability

(9) $678,000,000 to accelerate the Collaborative Combat Aircraft program; (10) $400,000,000 to accelerate production of the F–47 aircraft; (11) $750,000,000 accelerate the FA/XX aircraft

(18) $600,000,000 for the development, procurement, and integration of Air Force long-range strike aircraft; and (19) $500,000,000 for the development, procurement, and integration of Navy long-range strike aircraft.

there are appropriated to the Secretary of Defense for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029— (1) $2,500,000,000 for risk reduction activities for the Sentinel intercontinental ballistic missile program; (2) $4,500,000,000 only for expansion of production capacity of B–21 long-range bomber aircraft and the purchase of aircraft only available through the expansion of production capacity

(7) $2,000,000,000 to accelerate the development, procurement, and integration of the nuclear-armed sea-launched cruise missile; (8) $62,000,000 to convert Ohio-class submarine tubes to accept additional missiles, not to be obligated before March 1, 2026

there are appropriated to the Administrator of the National Nuclear Security Administration for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029

(2) $540,000,000 to address deferred maintenance and repair needs of the National Nuclear Security Administration pursuant to section 3211 of the National Nuclear Security Administration Act (50 U.S.C. 2401); (3) $1,000,000,000 to accelerate the construction of National Nuclear Security Administration facilities pursuant to section 3211 of the National Nuclear Security Administration Act (50 U.S.C. 2401); (4) $400,000,000 to accelerate the development, procurement, and integration of the warhead for the nuclear-armed sea-launched cruise missile pursuant to section 3211 of the National Nuclear Security Administration Act (50 U.S.C. 2401); (5) $750,000,000 to accelerate primary capability modernization pursuant to section 3211 of the National Nuclear Security Administration Act (50 U.S.C. 2401); (6) $750,000,000 to accelerate secondary capability modernization pursuant to section 3211 of the National Nuclear Security Administration Act (50 U.S.C. 2401)

there are appropriated to the Secretary of Defense for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029

(9) $1,100,000,000 for development of infrastructure within the area of operations of United States Indo-Pacific Command; (10) $124,000,000 for mission networks for United States Indo-Pacific Command

(20) $1,000,000,000 for offensive cyber operations

(24) $200,000,000 for acceleration of Guam Defense System program

(29) $1,000,000,000 for the X–37B military spacecraft program; (30) $3,650,000,000 for the development, procurement, and integration of United States military satellites and the protection of United States military satellites.

(14) $20,000,000 for United States Indo-Pacific Command military exercises

there are appropriated to the Secretary of Defense for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029— (1) $1,400,000,000 for a pilot program on OPN-8 maritime spares and repair rotable pool; (2) $700,000,000 for a pilot program on OPN-8 maritime spares and repair rotable pool for amphibious ships; (3) $2,118,000,000 for spares and repairs to keep Air Force aircraft mission capable; (4) $1,500,000,000 for Army depot modernization and capacity enhancement; (5) $2,000,000,000 for Navy depot and shipyard modernization and capacity enhancement; (6) $250,000,000 for Air Force depot modernization and capacity enhancement; (7) $1,640,000,000 for Special Operations Command equipment, readiness, and operations; (8) $500,000,000 for National Guard unit readiness

(19) $2,500,000,000 for Air Force facilities sustainment, restoration, and modernization

there are appropriated to the Secretary of Defense for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029, $1,000,000,000 for the deployment of military personnel in support of border operations, operations and maintenance activities in support of border operations, counter-narcotics and counter-transnational criminal organization mission support, the operation of national defense areas and construction in national defense areas, and the temporary detention of migrants on Department of Defense installations, in accordance with chapter 15 of title 10, United States Code.

there is appropriated to the Inspector General of the Department of Defense for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, $10,000,000, to remain available through September 30, 2029, to monitor Department of Defense activities for which funding is appropriated in this title

Funds are hereby authorized to be appropriated for military construction, land acquisition, and military family housing functions of each military department (as defined in section 101(a) of title 10, United States Code) as specified in this title.

Not later than 30 days after the date of the enactment of this title, the Secretary of each military department shall submit to the Committees on Armed Services of the Senate and House of Representatives a detailed spending plan by project for all funds made available by this title to be expended on military construction projects.

30001. Funding cap for the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection Section 1017(a)(2)(A)(iii) of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010 (12 U.S.C. 5497(a)(2)(A)(iii)) is amended by striking 12 and inserting 6.5.

30002. Rescission of funds for Green and Resilient Retrofit Program for Multifamily Housing The unobligated balances of amounts made available under section 30002(a) of the Act entitled An Act to provide for reconciliation pursuant to title II of S. Con. Res. 14, approved August 16, 2022 (Public Law 117–169; 136 Stat. 2027) are rescinded.

Section 4 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78d) is amended— (1) by striking subsection (i)

The Fund shall be available to the Commission, without further appropriation or fiscal year limitation, for paying awards to whistleblowers as provided in subsection (b).

During the period beginning on the date of enactment of this Act and ending on October 1, 2025, the Securities and Exchange Commission may expend amounts in the Securities and Exchange Commission Reserve Fund that were obligated before the date of enactment of this Act for any program, project, or activity that is ongoing (as of the day before the date of enactment of this Act)

Effective on October 1, 2025, the obligated and unobligated balances of amounts in the Securities and Exchange Commission Reserve Fund shall be transferred to the general fund of the Treasury.

the Securities and Exchange Commission Reserve Fund shall be considered closed, and thereafter shall not be available for obligation or expenditure for any purpose, upon execution of the transfer required under subsection (d).

In addition to amounts otherwise available, there is appropriated for fiscal year 2025, out of amounts not otherwise appropriated, $1,000,000,000, to remain available until September 30, 2027, to carry out the Defense Production Act (50 U.S.C. 4501 et seq.).

there is appropriated to the Coast Guard for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, $24,593,500,000, to remain available until September 30, 2029, notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2) of section 1105(a) and sections 1131, 1132, 1133, and 1156, to use expedited processes to procure or acquire new operational assets and systems

(4) $4,300,000,000 is provided for procurement of Offshore Patrol Cutters, equipment related to such cutters, and program management for such cutters

(6) $4,300,000,000 is provided for procurement of Polar Security Cutters, equipment related to such cutters, and program management for such cutters, to ensure timely presence of the Coast Guard in the Arctic and Antarctic regions; (7) $3,500,000,000 is provided for procurement of Arctic Security Cutters, equipment related to such cutters, and program management for such cutters

(10) $4,379,000,000 is provided for design, planning, engineering, recapitalization, construction, rebuilding, and improvement of, and program management for, shore facilities

(11) $2,200,000,000 is provided for aviation, cutter, and shore facility depot maintenance and maintenance of command, control, communication, computer, and cyber assets

complete a system of competitive bidding under this subsection shall expire September 30, 2034, except that, with respect to the electromagnetic spectrum— (A) between the frequencies of 3.1 gigahertz and 3.45 gigahertz, such authority shall not apply; and (B) between the frequencies of 7.4 gigahertz and 8.4 gigahertz, such authority shall not apply.

The Commission shall grant licenses through systems of competitive bidding, before the expiration of the general auction authority of the Commission under section 309(j)(11) of the Communications Act of 1934 (47 U.S.C. 309(j)(11)), as amended by paragraph (1) of this subsection, for not less than 300 megahertz, including by completing a system of competitive bidding not later than 2 years after the date of enactment of this Act for not less than 100 megahertz in the band between 3.98 gigahertz and 4.2 gigahertz.

shall identify 500 megahertz of frequencies in the covered band for reallocation to non-Federal use, shared Federal and non-Federal use, or a combination thereof, for full-power commercial licensed use cases, that— (A) as of the date of enactment of this Act, are allocated for Federal use; and (B) shall be in addition to the 300 megahertz of frequencies for which the Commission grants licenses under subsection (b)(2).

(A) Not later than 2 years after the date of enactment of this Act, the Assistant Secretary shall identify not less than 200 megahertz of frequencies within the covered band. (B) Not later than 4 years after the date of enactment of this Act, the Assistant Secretary shall identify any remaining bandwidth required to be identified under paragraph (1).

(1) Not later than 4 years after the date of enactment of this Act, the Commission shall, after notifying the Assistant Secretary, complete 1 or more systems of competitive bidding for not less than 200 megahertz of the frequencies. (2) Not later than 8 years after the date of enactment of this Act, the Commission shall, after notifying the Assistant Secretary, complete 1 or more systems of competitive bidding for any frequencies identified under subsection (c) that remain to be auctioned after compliance with paragraph (1) of this subsection.

The President shall modify or withdraw any frequency proposed for reallocation under this section not later than 60 days before the commencement of a system of competitive bidding scheduled by the Commission with respect to that frequency, if the President determines that such modification or withdrawal is necessary to protect the national security of the United States.

there is appropriated to the Department of Commerce for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, $50,000,000, to remain available through September 30, 2034

publish a biennial report, with the last report to be published not later than June 30, 2034, on the value of all spectrum used by Federal entities

there is appropriated to the Administrator of the Federal Aviation Administration for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029— (1) $4,750,000,000 for telecommunications infrastructure modernization and systems upgrades; (2) $3,000,000,000 for radar systems replacement; (3) $500,000,000 for runway safety technologies, runway lighting systems, airport surface surveillance technologies, and to carry out section 347 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 2024

(7) $1,900,000,000 for necessary actions to construct a new air route traffic control center (in this subsection referred to as ARTCC): Provided, That not more than 2 percent of such amount is used for planning or administrative purposes: Provided further, That at least 3 existing ARTCCs are divested and integrated into the newly constructed ARTCC; (8) $100,000,000 to conduct an ARTCC Realignment and Consolidation Effort under which at least 10 existing ARTCCs are closed or consolidated to facilitate recapitalization of ARTCC facilities owned and operated by the Federal Aviation Administration

Not later than 180 days after the date of enactment of this Act, and every 90 days thereafter, the Administrator of the Federal Aviation Administration shall submit to Congress a report that describes any expenditures under this section.

on each launch or reentry carried out under a license or permit issued under section 50904 during 2026 or a subsequent year, in an amount equal to the lesser of— (A) the amount specified in paragraph (2) for the year involved per pound of the weight of the payload; or (B) the amount specified in paragraph (3) for the year involved.

(A) for 2026, $0.25; (B) for 2027, $0.35; (C) for 2028, $0.50; (D) for 2029, $0.60; (E) for 2030, $0.75; (F) for 2031, $1; (G) for 2032, $1.25; (H) for 2033, $1.50; and (I) for 2034 and each subsequent year, the amount specified in this paragraph for the previous year increased by the percentage increase in the consumer price index for all urban consumers (all items; United States city average) over the previous year.

(A) for 2026, $30,000; (B) for 2027, $40,000; (C) for 2028, $50,000; (D) for 2029, $75,000; (E) for 2030, $100,000; (F) for 2031, $125,000; (G) for 2032, $170,000; (H) for 2033, $200,000; and (I) for 2034 and each subsequent year, the amount specified in this paragraph for the previous year increased by the percentage increase in the consumer price index for all urban consumers (all items; United States city average) over the previous year.

for the purposes of expenses of the Office of Commercial Space Transportation of the Federal Aviation Administration and to carry out section 630(b) of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 2024. 70 percent of the amounts deposited into the fund shall be available for such purposes and shall be available without further appropriation and without fiscal year limitation.

there is appropriated to the Administration for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, $9,995,000,000, to remain available until September 30, 2032

(2) $2,600,000,000 to meet the requirements of section 20302(a) using the program of record known, as of the date of the enactment of this section, as Gateway, and as described in section 10811(b)(2)(B)(iv) of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration Authorization Act of 2022 (51 U.S.C. 20302 note; Public Law 117–167), of which not less than $750,000,000 shall be obligated for each of fiscal years 2026, 2027, and 2028.

(3) $4,100,000,000 for expenses related to meeting the requirements of section 10812 of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration Authorization Act of 2022 (51 U.S.C. 20301; Public Law 117–167) for the procurement, transportation, integration, operation, and other necessary expenses of the Space Launch System for Artemis Missions IV and V, of which not less than $1,025,000,000 shall be obligated for each of fiscal years 2026, 2027, 2028, and 2029.

(4) $20,000,000 for expenses related to the continued procurement of the multi-purpose crew vehicle described in section 303 of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration Authorization Act of 2010 (42 U.S.C. 18323), known as the Orion, for use with the Space Launch System on the Artemis IV Mission and reuse in subsequent Artemis Missions, of which not less than $20,000,000 shall be obligated not later than fiscal year 2026.

(5) $1,250,000,000 for expenses related to the operation of the International Space Station and for the purpose of meeting the requirement under section 503(a) of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration Authorization Act of 2010 (42 U.S.C. 18353(a)), of which not less than $250,000,000 shall be obligated for such expenses for each of fiscal years 2025, 2026, 2027, 2028, and 2029.

(1) Not less than 50 percent of the total funds in subsection (a) shall be obligated not later than September 30, 2028. (2) 100 percent of funds shall be obligated not later than September 30, 2029. (3) All associated outlays shall occur not later than September 30, 2034.

(1) $700,000,000, to be obligated not later than fiscal year 2026, for the procurement, using a competitively bid, firm fixed-price contract with a United States commercial provider (as defined in section 50101(7)), of a high-performance Mars telecommunications orbiter

is selected from among the commercial proposals that— (I) received funding from the Administration in fiscal year 2024 or 2025 for commercial design studies for Mars Sample Return; and (II) proposed a separate, independently launched Mars telecommunication orbiter supporting an end-to-end Mars sample return mission; and (B) which shall be delivered to the Administration not later than December 31, 2028.

(7) $325,000,000 to fulfill contract number 80JSC024CA002 issued by the National Aeronautics and Space Administration on June 26, 2024.

(6) $1,000,000,000 for infrastructure improvements at the manned spaceflight centers of the Administration, of which not less than— (A) $120,000,000 shall be obligated not later than fiscal year 2026 for construction, revitalization, recapitalization, or other infrastructure projects and improvements at the center described in Executive Order 12641 (53 Fed. Reg. 18816; relating to designating certain facilities of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration in the State of Mississippi as the John C. Stennis Space Center); (B) $250,000,000 shall be obligated not later than fiscal year 2026 for construction, revitalization, recapitalization, or other infrastructure projects and improvements at the center described in Executive Order 11129 (28 Fed. Reg. 12787; relating to designating certain facilities of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration and of the Department of Defense, in the State of Florida, as the John F. Kennedy Space Center); (C) $300,000,000 shall be obligated not later than fiscal year 2026 for construction, revitalization, recapitalization, or other infrastructure projects and improvements at the center described in the Joint Resolution entitled Joint Resolution to designate the Manned Spacecraft Center in Houston, Texas, as the Lyndon B. Johnson Space Center in honor of the late President, approved February 17, 1973 (Public Law 93–8; 87 Stat. 7); (D) $100,000,000 shall be obligated not later than fiscal year 2026 for construction, revitalization, recapitalization, or other infrastructure projects and improvements at the center described in Executive Order 10870 (25 Fed. Reg. 2197; relating to designating the facilities of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration at Huntsville, Alabama, as the George C. Marshall Space Flight Center); (E) $30,000,000 shall be obligated not later than fiscal year 2026 for construction, revitalization, recapitalization, or other infrastructure projects and improvements at the Michoud Assembly Facility in New Orleans, Louisiana

(F) $85,000,000 shall be obligated to carry out subsection (b), of which not less than $5,000,000 shall be obligated for the transportation of the space vehicle described in that subsection, with the remainder transferred not later than the date that is 18 months after the date of the enactment of this section to the entity designated under that subsection, for the purpose of construction of a facility to house the space vehicle referred to in that subsection.

Not later than 30 days after the date of the enactment of this section, the Administrator shall identify a space vehicle described in paragraph (2)

a vessel that— (A) has flown into space; (B) has carried astronauts; and (C) is selected with the concurrence of an entity designated by the Administrator.

Not later than 18 months after the date of the enactment of this section, the space vehicle identified under paragraph (1) shall be transferred to an entity designated by the Administrator.

(1) in subsection (b), in the matter preceding paragraph (1), by striking $5 and inserting $0.00; and (2) in subsection (c)(1)(B), by striking $10 and inserting $0.00.

(1) take effect on the date of enactment of this section; and (2) apply to all model years of a manufacturer for which the Secretary of Transportation has not provided a notification pursuant to section 32903(b)(2)(B) of title 49, United States Code, specifying the penalty due for the average fuel economy of that manufacturer being less than the applicable standard prescribed under section 32902 of that title.

under the lease, the Airports Authority must pay to the general fund of the Treasury annually an amount, computed using the GNP Price Deflator— (A) during the period from 1987 to 2026, equal to $3,000,000 in 1987 dollars; and (B) for 2027 and subsequent years, equal to $15,000,000 in 2027 dollars.

The Secretary and the Airports Authority shall renegotiate the level of lease payments at least once every 10 years to ensure that in no year the amount specified in paragraph (1)(B) is less than $15,000,000 in 2027 dollars.

40008. Rescission of certain amounts for the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration Any unobligated balances of amounts appropriated or otherwise made available by sections 40001, 40002, 40003, and 40004 of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2028) are hereby rescinded.

40009. Reduction in annual transfers to Travel Promotion Fund Subsection (d)(2)(B) of the Travel Promotion Act of 2009 (22 U.S.C. 2131(d)(2)(B)) is amended by striking $100,000,000 and inserting $20,000,000.

40010. Treatment of unobligated funds for alternative fuel and low-emission aviation technology Out of the amounts made available by section 40007(a) of title IV of Public Law 117–169 (49 U.S.C. 44504 note), any unobligated balances of such amounts are hereby rescinded.

40011. Rescission of amounts appropriated to Public Wireless Supply Chain Innovation Fund Of the unobligated balances of amounts made available under section 106(a) of the CHIPS Act of 2022 (Public Law 117–167; 136 Stat. 1392), $850,000,000 are permanently rescinded.

(1) Onshore oil and gas royalty rates Subsection (a) of section 50262 of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2056) is repealed, and any provision of law amended or repealed by that subsection is restored or revived as if that subsection had not been enacted into law. (2) Noncompetitive leasing Subsection (e) of section 50262 of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2057) is repealed, and any provision of law amended or repealed by that subsection is restored or revived as if that subsection had not been enacted into law.

The Secretary of the Interior shall immediately resume quarterly onshore oil and gas lease sales in compliance with the Mineral Leasing Act (30 U.S.C. 181 et seq.).

any oil and gas lease sale required under paragraph (1) is conducted immediately on completion of all applicable scoping, public comment, and environmental analysis requirements

each fiscal year, the Secretary of the Interior shall conduct a minimum of 4 oil and gas lease sales of available land in each of the following States: (A) Wyoming. (B) New Mexico. (C) Colorado. (D) Utah. (E) Montana. (F) North Dakota. (G) Oklahoma. (H) Nevada. (I) Alaska.

shall offer not less than 50 percent of available parcels nominated for oil and gas development under the applicable resource management plan

shall conduct a replacement sale during the same fiscal year if— (A) a lease sale under paragraph (1) is canceled, delayed, or deferred, including for a lack of eligible parcels; or (B) during a lease sale under paragraph (1) the percentage of acreage that does not receive a bid is equal to or greater than 25 percent of the acreage offered.

not later than 18 months after the date of receipt by the Secretary of an expression of interest in leasing the applicable parcel of land available for disposition under this section, if the Secretary determines that the parcel of land is open to oil or gas leasing under the approved resource management plan applicable to the planning area in which the parcel of land is located that is in effect on the date on which the expression of interest was submitted to the Secretary

may not require any stipulations or mitigation requirements not included in the approved resource management plan.

The initiation of an amendment to an approved resource management plan shall not prevent or delay the Secretary from making the applicable parcel of land available for leasing in accordance with that approved resource management plan if the other requirements of this section have been met, as determined by the Secretary.

A permit to drill approved under this subsection shall be valid for a single, non-renewable 4-year period beginning on the date that the permit to drill is approved.

The Secretary of the Interior shall approve applications allowing for the commingling of production from 2 or more sources (including the area of an oil and gas lease, the area included in a drilling spacing unit, a unit participating area, a communitized area, or non-Federal property) before production reaches the point of royalty measurement regardless of ownership, the royalty rates, and the number or percentage of acres for each source if the applicant agrees to install measurement devices for each source, utilize an allocation method that achieves volume measurement uncertainty levels within plus or minus 2 percent during the production phase reported on a monthly basis, or utilize an approved periodic well testing methodology.

except within areas subject to existing oil and gas leasing moratoria, the Secretary of the Interior shall conduct a minimum of 30 region-wide oil and gas lease sales

(i) hold not fewer than 1 lease sale in the region described in subparagraph (A) by December 15, 2025; (ii) hold not fewer than 2 lease sales in that region in each of calendar years 2026 through 2039, 1 of which shall be held by March 15 of the applicable calendar year and 1 of which shall be held after March 15 but not later than August 15 of the applicable calendar year; and (iii) hold not fewer than 1 lease sale in that region in calendar year 2040, which shall be held by March 15, 2040.

in the Cook Inlet Planning Area

in each of calendar years 2026 through 2028, and in each of calendar years 2030 through 2032, by March 15 of the applicable calendar year.

(A) Gulf of America region For each offshore lease sale conducted under subsection (a)(1), the Secretary of the Interior shall— (i) offer not fewer than 80,000,000 acres; or (ii) if there are fewer than 80,000,000 acres that are unleased and available, offer all unleased and available acres. (B) Alaska region For each offshore lease sale conducted under subsection (a)(2), the Secretary of the Interior shall— (i) offer not fewer than 1,000,000 acres; or (ii) if there are fewer than 1,000,000 acres that are unleased and available, offer all unleased and available acres.

shall, subject to subparagraph (C), offer the same lease form, lease terms, economic conditions, and lease stipulations 4 through 9 as contained in the final notice of sale of the Bureau of Ocean Energy Management entitled Gulf of Mexico Outer Continental Shelf Region-Wide Oil and Gas Lease Sale 254

(C) shall set the royalty rate at not less than 121/2 percent but not greater than 162/3 percent; and (D) shall, for a lease in water depths of 800 meters or deeper issued as a result of a sale, set the primary term for 10 years.

The Secretary of the Interior shall approve a request of an operator to commingle oil or gas production from multiple reservoirs within a single wellbore completed on the outer Continental Shelf in the Gulf of America Region unless the Secretary of the Interior determines that conclusive evidence establishes that the commingling— (1) could not be conducted by the operator in a safe manner; or (2) would result in an ultimate recovery from the applicable reservoirs to be reduced in comparison to the expected recovery of those reservoirs if they had not been commingled.

beginning in fiscal year 2034, of the bonuses, rents, royalties, and other revenues derived from lease sales conducted under subsection (a)(2)— (i) 70 percent shall be paid to the State of Alaska; and (ii) 30 percent shall be deposited in the Treasury and credited to miscellaneous receipts.

(D) $650,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2025 through 2034; and (E) $500,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2035 through 2055.

(d) Offshore oil and gas royalty rate (1) Repeal Section 50261 of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2056) is repealed, and any provision of law amended or repealed by that section is restored or revived as if that section had not been enacted into law. (2) Royalty rate Section 8(a)(1) of the Outer Continental Shelf Lands Act (43 U.S.C. 1337(a)(1)) (as amended by paragraph (1)) is amended— (A) in subparagraph (A), by striking not less than 121/2 per centum and inserting not less than 121/2 percent, but not more than 162/3 percent,; (B) in subparagraph (C), by striking not less than 121/2 per centum and inserting not less than 121/2 percent, but not more than 162/3 percent,; (C) in subparagraph (F), by striking no less than 121/2 per centum and inserting not less than 121/2 percent, but not more than 162/3 percent,; and (D) in subparagraph (H), by striking no less than 12 and 1/2 per centum and inserting not less than 121/2 percent, but not more than 162/3 percent,.

50103. Royalties on extracted methane Section 50263 of Public Law 117–169 (30 U.S.C. 1727) is repealed.

in addition to the lease sales required under section 20001(c)(1)(A) of Public Law 115–97 (16 U.S.C. 3143 note), the Secretary shall conduct not fewer than 4 lease sales area-wide under the oil and gas program by not later than 10 years after the date of enactment of this Act.

the Secretary shall offer the same terms and conditions as contained in the record of decision described in the notice of availability of the Bureau of Land Management entitled Notice of Availability of the Record of Decision for the Final Environmental Impact Statement for the Coastal Plain Oil and Gas Leasing Program, Alaska (85 Fed. Reg. 51754 (August 21, 2020)).

(i) not fewer than 400,000 acres area-wide in each lease sale; and (ii) those areas that have the highest potential for the discovery of hydrocarbons.

(i) the initial lease sale under paragraph (1) not later than 1 year after the date of enactment of this Act; (ii) a second lease sale under paragraph (1) not later than 3 years after the date of enactment of this Act; (iii) a third lease sale under paragraph (1) not later than 5 years after the date of enactment of this Act; and (iv) a fourth lease sale under paragraph (1) not later than 7 years after the date of enactment of this Act.

(4) Rights-of-way Section 20001(c)(2) of Public Law 115–97 (16 U.S.C. 3143 note) shall apply to leases awarded under this subsection. (5) Surface development Section 20001(c)(3) of Public Law 115–97 (16 U.S.C. 3143 note) shall apply to leases awarded under this subsection.

(A) for each of fiscal years 2025 through 2033, 50 percent shall be paid to the State of Alaska; and (B) for fiscal year 2034 and each fiscal year thereafter, 70 percent shall be paid to the State of Alaska; and (2) the balance shall be deposited into the Treasury as miscellaneous receipts.

dated June 2020, including the errata sheet dated October 6, 2020, and excluding the errata sheet dated September 20, 2022.

Effective beginning on the date of enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall expeditiously restore and resume oil and gas lease sales under the Program

the Secretary shall conduct not fewer than 5 lease sales under the Program by not later than 10 years after the date of enactment of this Act.

the Secretary shall offer not fewer than 4,000,000 acres in each lease sale. (B) Schedule The Secretary shall offer— (i) an initial lease sale under paragraph (1) not later than 1 year after the date of enactment of this Act; and (ii) an additional lease sale under paragraph (1) not later than every 2 years after the date of enactment of this Act.

the Secretary shall offer the same lease form, lease terms, economic conditions, and stipulations as described in the NPR–A final environmental impact statement and the NPR–A record of decision.

Beginning in fiscal year 2034, of the receipts from sales, rentals, bonuses, and royalties on leases issued pursuant to this section after the date of enactment of the Act entitled An Act to provide for reconciliation pursuant to title II of H. Con. Res. 14 (119th Congress)— (A) 70 percent shall be paid to the State of Alaska; and (B) 30 percent shall be paid into the Treasury of the United States.

an application for a coal lease pending as of the date of enactment of this Act or submitted within 90 days thereafter under the lease by application program administered by the Bureau of Land Management pursuant to the Mineral Leasing Act (30 U.S.C. 181 et seq.) for which any required environmental review has commenced or the Director of the Bureau of Land Management determines can commence within 90 days after receiving the application.

Not later than 90 days after the date of enactment of this Act, the Secretary of the Interior— (1) shall— (A) with respect to each qualified application— (i) if not previously published for public comment, publish any required environmental review; (ii) establish the fair market value of the applicable coal tract; (iii) hold a lease sale with respect to the applicable coal tract; and (iv) identify the highest bidder at or above the fair market value and take all other intermediate actions necessary to identify the winning bidder and grant the qualified application

(2) may— (A) with respect to a previously issued coal lease, grant any additional approvals of the Department of the Interior required for mining activities to commence; and (B) after completing the actions required by clauses (i) through (iv) of paragraph (1)(A), grant the qualified application and issue the applicable lease to the person that submitted the qualified application if that person submitted the winning bid in the lease sale held under clause (iii) of paragraph (1)(A).

by striking 121/2 per centum and inserting 121/2 percent, except such amount shall be not more than 7 percent during the period that begins on the date of enactment of the Act entitled An Act to provide for reconciliation pursuant to title II of H. Con. Res. 14 (119th Congress) and ends September 30, 2034

shall apply to a coal lease— (1) issued under section 2 of the Mineral Leasing Act (30 U.S.C. 201) before, on, or after the date of the enactment of this Act; and (2) that has not been terminated.

the Secretary of the Interior shall provide to the lessee a credit for the difference between the amount paid by the lessee in advance royalties for the lease before the date of the enactment of this Act and the amount the lessee would have been required to pay if the amendment made by subsection (a) had been made before the lessee paid advance royalties for the lease.

not later than 90 days after the date of enactment of this Act, the Secretary of the Interior shall make available for lease known recoverable coal resources of not less than 4,000,000 additional acres on Federal land located in the 48 contiguous States and Alaska subject to the jurisdiction of the Secretary, but which shall not include any Federal land within— (1) a National Monument; (2) a National Recreation Area; (3) a component of the National Wilderness Preservation System; (4) a component of the National Wild and Scenic Rivers System; (5) a component of the National Trails System; (6) a National Conservation Area; (7) a unit of the National Wildlife Refuge System; (8) a unit of the National Fish Hatchery System; or (9) a unit of the National Park System.

In order to provide access to coal reserves in adjacent State or private land that without an authorization could not be mined economically, Federal coal reserves located in Federal land subject to a mining plan previously approved by the Secretary of the Interior as of the date of enactment of this Act and adjacent to coal reserves in adjacent State or private land are authorized to be mined.

Not later than 90 days after the date of enactment of this Act, the Secretary of the Interior shall, without substantial modification, take such steps as are necessary to authorize the mining of Federal land described in subsection (a).

Nothing in this section shall prevent a review under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.).

The term National Forest System does not include any forest reserve not created from the public domain.

For each of fiscal years 2026 through 2034, the Secretary shall sell timber annually on National Forest System land in a total quantity that is not less than 250,000,000 board-feet greater than the quantity of board-feet sold in the previous fiscal year. (B) Limitation The timber sales under subparagraph (A) shall be subject to the maximum allowable sale quantity of timber or the projected timber sale quantity under the applicable forest plan in effect on the date of enactment of this Act.

For the period of fiscal years 2025 through 2034, the Secretary shall enter into not fewer than 40 long-term timber sale contracts

The period of a timber sale contract entered into to meet the requirement under subparagraph (A) shall be not less than 20 years, with options for extensions or renewals, as determined by the Secretary.

For each of fiscal years 2026 through 2034, the Secretary shall sell timber annually on public lands in a total quantity that is not less than 20,000,000 board-feet greater than the quantity of board-feet sold in the previous fiscal year. (B) Limitation The timber sales under subparagraph (A) shall be subject to the applicable resource management plan in effect on the date of enactment of this Act.

For the period of fiscal years 2025 through 2034, the Secretary shall enter into not fewer than 5 long-term contracts

The period of a contract entered into to meet the requirement under subparagraph (A) shall be not less than 20 years, with options for extensions or renewals, as determined by the Secretary. (C) Receipts Any monies derived from a contract entered into to meet the requirements under subparagraphs (A) and (B) shall be deposited in the general fund of the Treasury.

Any monies derived from a timber sale contract entered into to meet the requirements under subparagraphs (A) and (B) shall be deposited in the general fund of the Treasury.

The term Annual Adjustment Factor means 3 percent.

The term Encumbrance Factor means— (A) 100 percent for a solar energy generation facility; and (B) an amount determined by the Secretary, but not less than 10 percent for a wind energy generation facility.

the average of the per-acre pastureland rental rates published in the Cash Rents Survey by the National Agricultural Statistics Service for the State in which the right-of-way is located over the 5 calendar-year period preceding the issuance or renewal of the right-of-way.

The holder of a right-of-way for a renewable energy project shall pay an acreage rent collected under paragraph (1) until the date on which energy generation begins.

shall be equal to the greater of— (A) an amount equal to the acreage rent described in subsection (b); and (B) 3.9 percent of the gross proceeds from the sale of electricity produced by the renewable energy project.

The holder of a right-of-way for a wind energy generation project may request that the Secretary apply a multiple-use reduction factor of 10-percent

only if not less than 25 percent of the land within the area of the right-of-way is authorized for use, occupancy, or development with respect to an activity other than the generation of wind energy for the entirety of the year in which the capacity fee is collected.

to the capacity fee for the first year beginning after the date of approval and each year thereafter for the period during which the right-of-way remains in effect. (ii) Refund The Secretary may not refund the holder of a right-of-way for the difference in the amount of a capacity fee paid in a previous year.

The Secretary may charge the holder of a right-of-way for a renewable energy project a late payment fee if the Secretary does not receive payment for the acreage rent under subsection (b) or the capacity fee under subsection (c) by the date that is 15 days after the date on which the payment was due.

The Secretary may terminate a right-of-way for a renewable energy project if the Secretary does not receive payment for the acreage rent under subsection (b) or the capacity fee under subsection (c) by the date that is 90 days after the date on which the payment was due.

Beginning on January 1, 2026, the amounts collected from a renewable energy project as bonus bids, rentals, fees, or other payments under a right-of-way, permit, lease, or other authorization shall— (A) be deposited in the general fund of the Treasury; and (B) without further appropriation or fiscal year limitation, be allocated as follows: (i) 25 percent shall be paid from amounts in the general fund of the Treasury to the State within the boundaries of which the revenue is derived. (ii) 25 percent shall be paid from amounts in the general fund of the Treasury to each county in a State within the boundaries of which the revenue is derived, to be allocated among each applicable county based on the percentage of county land from which the revenue is derived.

Amounts paid to States and counties under paragraph (1) shall be used in accordance with the requirements of section 35 of the Mineral Leasing Act (30 U.S.C. 191).

A payment to a county under paragraph (1) shall be in addition to a payment in lieu of taxes received by the county under chapter 69 of title 31, United States Code.

shall be made available in the fiscal year that immediately follows the fiscal year for which the amounts were collected.

50304. Rescission of National Park Service and Bureau of Land Management funds There are rescinded the unobligated balances of amounts made available by the following sections of Public Law 117–169 (commonly known as the Inflation Reduction Act of 2022) (136 Stat. 1818): (1) Section 50221 (136 Stat. 2052). (2) Section 50222 (136 Stat. 2052). (3) Section 50223 (136 Stat. 2052).

there is appropriated to the Secretary of the Interior (acting through the Director of the National Park Service) for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, $150,000,000 for events, celebrations, and activities surrounding the observance and commemoration of the 250th anniversary of the founding of the United States, to remain available through fiscal year 2028.

there is appropriated to the Department of Energy for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029— (1) $218,000,000 for maintenance of, including repairs to, storage facilities and related facilities of the Strategic Petroleum Reserve; and (2) $171,000,000 to acquire, by purchase, petroleum products for storage in the Strategic Petroleum Reserve.

(c) Repeal of strategic petroleum reserve drawdown and sale mandate Section 20003 of Public Law 115–97 (42 U.S.C. 6241 note) is repealed.

Section 50142 of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2044) (commonly known as the Inflation Reduction Act of 2022) is repealed and the unobligated balance of amounts made available under that section (as in effect on the day before the date of enactment of this Act) is rescinded.

The unobligated balances of amounts made available under the sections described in paragraph (2) are rescinded. (2) Sections described The sections referred to in paragraph (1) are the following sections of Public Law 117–169 (commonly known as the Inflation Reduction Act of 2022): (A) Section 50123 (42 U.S.C. 18795b). (B) Section 50141 (136 Stat. 2042). (C) Section 50144 (136 Stat. 2044). (D) Section 50145 (136 Stat. 2045). (E) Section 50151 (42 U.S.C. 18715). (F) Section 50152 (42 U.S.C. 18715a). (G) Section 50153 (42 U.S.C. 18715b). (H) Section 50161 (42 U.S.C. 17113b).

by striking avoid and all that follows through the period at the end and inserting increase capacity or output; or

support or enable the provision of known or forecastable electric supply at time intervals necessary to maintain or enhance grid reliability or other system adequacy needs.

for enabling the identification, leasing, development, production, processing, transportation, transmission, refining, and generation needed for energy and critical minerals.

there is appropriated to the Secretary for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, $1,000,000,000, to remain available through September 30, 2028, to carry out activities under this section. (2) Administrative costs Of the amount made available under paragraph (1), the Secretary shall use not more than 3 percent for administrative expenses.

Section 50144(b) of Public Law 117–169 (commonly known as the Inflation Reduction Act of 2022) (136 Stat. 2045) is amended by striking 2026 and inserting 2028.

The Secretary of Energy shall— (1) mobilize National Laboratories to partner with industry sectors within the United States to curate the scientific data of the Department of Energy across the National Laboratory complex so that the data is structured, cleaned, and preprocessed in a way that makes it suitable for use in artificial intelligence and machine learning models; and (2) initiate seed efforts for self-improving artificial intelligence models for science and engineering powered by the data described in paragraph (1).

The artificial intelligence models developed under subsection (b)(2) shall be provided to the scientific community through the American science cloud to accelerate innovation in discovery science and engineering for new energy technologies.

There is appropriated, out of any funds in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, $150,000,000, to remain available through September 30, 2026, to carry out this section.

$1,000,000,000, to remain available through September 30, 2034, for construction and associated activities that restore or increase the capacity or use of existing conveyance facilities constructed by the Bureau of Reclamation or for construction and associated activities that increase the capacity of existing Bureau of Reclamation surface water storage facilities

there is appropriated to the Secretary of the Interior, acting through the Commissioner of Reclamation, for fiscal year 2025

for the purposes of section 203 of the Reclamation Reform Act of 1982 (43 U.S.C. 390cc) or section 3404(a) of the Reclamation Projects Authorization and Adjustment Act of 1992 (Public Law 102–575; 106 Stat. 4708), a contract or agreement entered into pursuant to this section shall not be treated as a new or amended contract

none of the funds provided under this section shall be reimbursable or subject to matching or cost-sharing requirements.

60001. Rescission of funding for clean heavy-duty vehicles The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 132 of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7432) are rescinded.

60002. Repeal of Greenhouse Gas Reduction Fund Section 134 of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7434) is repealed and the unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out that section (as in effect on the day before the date of enactment of this Act) are rescinded.

60003. Rescission of funding for diesel emissions reductions The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 60104 of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2067) are rescinded.

60004. Rescission of funding to address air pollution The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 60105 of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2067) are rescinded.

60005. Rescission of funding to address air pollution at schools The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 60106 of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2069) are rescinded.

60006. Rescission of funding for the low emissions electricity program The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 135 of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7435) are rescinded.

60007. Rescission of funding for section 211(o) of the Clean Air Act The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 60108 of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2070) are rescinded.

60008. Rescission of funding for implementation of the American Innovation and Manufacturing Act The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 60109 of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2071) are rescinded.

60009. Rescission of funding for enforcement technology and public information The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 60110 of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2071) are rescinded.

60010. Rescission of funding for greenhouse gas corporate reporting The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 60111 of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2072) are rescinded.

60011. Rescission of funding for environmental product declaration assistance The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 60112 of Public Law 117–169 (42 U.S.C. 4321 note; 136 Stat. 2072) are rescinded.

The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out subsections (a) and (b) of section 136 of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7436) are rescinded. (b) Period Section 136(g) of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7436(g)) is amended by striking calendar year 2024 and inserting calendar year 2034.

60013. Rescission of funding for greenhouse gas air pollution plans and implementation grants The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 137 of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7437) are rescinded.

60014. Rescission of funding for environmental protection agency efficient, accurate, and timely reviews The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 60115 of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2077) are rescinded.

2025-07-04: Became Public Law No: 119-21.

The Secretary shall not increase the cost of the thrifty food plan based on a re-evaluation under this paragraph.

Section 6(o) of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2015(o)) is amended by striking paragraph (3) and inserting the following: (3) Exceptions Paragraph (2) shall not apply to an individual if the individual is

by striking $18,000 both places it appears in subparagraphs (A)(i) and (B)(ii) and inserting $23,625

in paragraph (2), by striking $2,000 and inserting $2,200

Deduction for seniors (i) In general In the case of a taxable year beginning before January 1, 2029, there shall be allowed a deduction in an amount equal to $6,000 for each qualified individual with respect to the taxpayer.

There shall be allowed as a deduction an amount equal to the qualified tips received during the taxable year

No deduction shall be allowed under this section for any taxable year beginning after December 31, 2028.

There shall be allowed as a deduction an amount equal to the qualified overtime compensation received during the taxable year

No deduction shall be allowed under this section for any taxable year beginning after December 31, 2028.

In the case of taxable years beginning after December 31, 2024, and before January 1, 2029, for purposes of this subsection the term personal interest shall not include qualified passenger vehicle loan interest.

is created or organized by the Secretary for the exclusive benefit of an eligible individual or such eligible individual's beneficiaries

who has not attained the age of 18 before the close of the calendar year in which the election under subparagraph (C) is made

The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 60112 of Public Law 117–169 (42 U.S.C. 4321 note; 136 Stat. 2072) are rescinded.

$256,657,000, to remain available until September 30, 2029, for necessary expenses for capital repair, restoration, maintenance backlog, and security structures of the building and site of the John F. Kennedy Center for the Performing Arts.

A project sponsor may pay a fee under this section after receipt of the notice described in paragraph (2).

an environmental assessment for which a fee is paid under this section shall be completed not later than 180 days after the date on which the fee is paid; and (B) an environmental impact statement for which a fee is paid under this section shall be completed not later than 1 year after the date of publication of the notice of intent to prepare the environmental impact statement.

Source snapshot updated 2026-09-19T23:26:15Z.

2025-07-01: Passed Senate with an amendment by Yea-Nay Vote. 51 - 50. Record Vote Number: 372.

2025-07-03: On motion that the House agree to the Senate amendment Agreed to by recorded vote: 218 - 214 (Roll no. 190). (text: CR H3059-3143)

2025-07-04: Became Public Law No: 119-21.

2025-07-04: Signed by President.

using the items and quantities of food described in the report of the Department of Agriculture entitled Thrifty Food Plan, 2021, and each successor report updated pursuant to this subsection

the cost of the thrifty food plan shall be the basis for uniform allotments for all households, regardless of the actual composition of the household

The Secretary shall make household adjustments using the following ratios of household size as a percentage of the maximum 4-person allotment: (A) For a 1-person household, 30 percent. (B) For a 2-person household, 55 percent. (C) For a 3-person household, 79 percent. (D) For a 4-person household, 100 percent. (E) For a 5-person household, 119 percent. (F) For a 6-person household, 143 percent. (G) For a 7-person household, 158 percent. (H) For an 8-person household, 180 percent. (I) For a household of 9 persons or more, an additional 22 percent per person, which additional percentage shall not total more than 200 percent.

(A) make cost adjustments in the thrifty food plan for Hawaii and the urban and rural parts of Alaska to reflect the cost of food in Hawaii and urban and rural Alaska; (B) make cost adjustments in the separate thrifty food plans for Guam and the Virgin Islands of the United States to reflect the cost of food in those States, but not to exceed the cost of food in the 50 States and the District of Columbia; and (C) on October 1, 2025, and on each October 1 thereafter, adjust the cost of the thrifty food plan to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers, published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor, for the most recent 12-month period ending in June.

Not earlier than October 1, 2027, the Secretary may re-evaluate the market baskets of the thrifty food plan based on current food prices, food composition data, consumption patterns, and dietary guidance. (B) Cost neutrality The Secretary shall not increase the cost of the thrifty food plan based on a re-evaluation under this paragraph.

(3) Exceptions Paragraph (2) shall not apply to an individual if the individual is— (A) under 18, or over 65, years of age; (B) medically certified as physically or mentally unfit for employment; (C) a parent or other member of a household with responsibility for a dependent child under 14 years of age; (D) otherwise exempt under subsection (d)(2); (E) a pregnant woman; (F) an Indian or an Urban Indian (as such terms are defined in paragraphs (13) and (28) of section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act); or (G) a California Indian described in section 809(a) of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act.

(ii) is in a noncontiguous State and has an unemployment rate that is at or above 1.5 times the national unemployment rate.

the term noncontiguous State means a State that is not 1 of the contiguous 48 States or the District of Columbia. (ii) Exclusions In this paragraph, the term noncontiguous State does not include Guam or the Virgin Islands of the United States.

the Secretary may exempt individuals in a noncontiguous State from compliance with the requirements of paragraph (2) if— (i) the State agency submits to the Secretary a request for that exemption

the Secretary determines that based on that request, the State agency is demonstrating a good faith effort to comply with the requirements of paragraph (2).

An exemption granted under subparagraph (B) shall expire not later than December 31, 2028, and may not be renewed beyond that date.

The Secretary may terminate an exemption granted under subparagraph (B) prior to the expiration date of that exemption if the Secretary determines that the State agency— (I) has failed to comply with the reporting requirements described in subparagraph (E); or (II) based on the information provided pursuant to subparagraph (E), failed to make continued good faith efforts toward compliance with the requirements of this subsection.

quarterly progress reports on the status of the State agency in achieving the milestones toward full compliance

60011. Rescission of funding for environmental product declaration assistance The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 60112 of Public Law 117–169 (42 U.S.C. 4321 note; 136 Stat. 2072) are rescinded.

The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out subsections (a) and (b) of section 136 of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7436) are rescinded. (b) Period Section 136(g) of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7436(g)) is amended by striking calendar year 2024 and inserting calendar year 2034.

60013. Rescission of funding for greenhouse gas air pollution plans and implementation grants The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 137 of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7437) are rescinded.

60014. Rescission of funding for environmental protection agency efficient, accurate, and timely reviews The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 60115 of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2077) are rescinded.

60015. Rescission of funding for low-embodied carbon labeling for construction materials The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 60116 of Public Law 117–169 (42 U.S.C. 4321 note; 136 Stat. 2077) are rescinded.

60016. Rescission of funding for environmental and climate justice block grants The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 138 of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7438) are rescinded.

60017. Rescission of funding for ESA recovery plans The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 60301 of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2079) are rescinded.

60018. Rescission of funding for environmental and climate data collection The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 60401 of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2079) are rescinded.

60019. Rescission of neighborhood access and equity grant program The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 177 of title 23, United States Code, are rescinded.

60020. Rescission of funding for Federal building assistance The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 60502 of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2083) are rescinded.

60021. Rescission of funding for low-carbon materials for Federal buildings The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 60503 of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2083) are rescinded.

60022. Rescission of funding for GSA emerging and sustainable technologies The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 60504 of Public Law 117–169 (136 Stat. 2083) are rescinded.

60023. Rescission of environmental review implementation funds The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 178 of title 23, United States Code, are rescinded.

60024. Rescission of low-carbon transportation materials grants The unobligated balances of amounts made available to carry out section 179 of title 23, United States Code, are rescinded.

there is appropriated for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, $256,657,000, to remain available until September 30, 2029, for necessary expenses for capital repair, restoration, maintenance backlog, and security structures of the building and site of the John F. Kennedy Center for the Performing Arts.

not more than 3 percent may be used for administrative costs necessary to carry out this section.

shall submit to the Council— (A) a description of the project; and (B) a declaration of whether the project sponsor intends to prepare the environmental assessment or environmental impact statement under section 107(f).

Not later than 15 days after the date on which the Council receives information described in paragraph (1) from a project sponsor, the Council shall provide to the project sponsor notice of the amount of the fee

A project sponsor may pay a fee under this section after receipt of the notice described in paragraph (2).

Notwithstanding section 107(g)(1)— (A) an environmental assessment for which a fee is paid under this section shall be completed not later than 180 days after the date on which the fee is paid; and (B) an environmental impact statement for which a fee is paid under this section shall be completed not later than 1 year after the date of publication of the notice of intent to prepare the environmental impact statement.

The amount of a fee under this section shall be— (1) 125 percent of the anticipated costs to prepare the environmental assessment or environmental impact statement; and (2) in the case of an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement to be prepared in whole or in part by a project sponsor under section 107(f), 125 percent of the anticipated costs to supervise preparation of, and, as applicable, prepare, the environmental assessment or environmental impact statement.

Except as otherwise expressly provided, whenever in this title, an amendment or repeal is expressed in terms of an amendment to, or repeal of, a section or other provision, the reference shall be considered to be made to a section or other provision of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.

Section 15 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 shall not apply to any change in rate of tax by reason of any provision of, or amendment made by, this title.

Section 1(j) is amended— (1) in paragraph (1), by striking , and before January 1, 2026, and (2) by striking 2018 through 2025 in the heading and inserting beginning after 2017.

by inserting solely for purposes of determining the dollar amounts at which any rate bracket higher than 12 percent ends and at which any rate bracket higher than 22 percent begins, before subsection (f)(3).

shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

by striking , and before January 1, 2026 in the matter preceding subparagraph (A)

(1) by striking $18,000 both places it appears in subparagraphs (A)(i) and (B)(ii) and inserting $23,625, (2) by striking $12,000 both places it appears in subparagraphs (A)(ii) and (B)(ii) and inserting $15,750, (3) by striking 2018 in subparagraph (B)(ii) and inserting 2025, and (4) by striking 2017 in subparagraph (B)(ii)(II) and inserting 2024.

shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2024.

Section 151(d)(5) is amended— (1) by striking 2018 through 2025 in the heading and inserting beginning after 2017, (2) by striking , and before January 1, 2026,

In the case of a taxable year beginning before January 1, 2029, there shall be allowed a deduction in an amount equal to $6,000 for each qualified individual with respect to the taxpayer.

(I) the taxpayer, if the taxpayer has attained age 65 before the close of the taxable year, and (II) in the case of a joint return, the taxpayer's spouse, if such spouse has attained age 65 before the close of the taxable year.

the $6,000 amount in clause (i) shall be reduced (but not below zero) by 6 percent of so much of the taxpayer's modified adjusted gross income as exceeds $75,000 ($150,000 in the case of a joint return).

unless the taxpayer includes such qualified individual's social security number on the return of tax for the taxable year.

this subparagraph shall apply only if the taxpayer and the taxpayer's spouse file a joint return for the taxable year.

shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2024.

(1) in paragraph (1), by striking , and before January 1, 2026, (2) in paragraph (2), by striking $2,000 and inserting $2,200

No credit shall be allowed under this section to a taxpayer with respect to any qualifying child unless the taxpayer includes on the return of tax for the taxable year— (i) the taxpayer's social security number (or, in the case of a joint return, the social security number of at least 1 spouse), and (ii) the social security number of such qualifying child.

but only if the social security number is issued— (i) to a citizen of the United States or pursuant to subclause (I) (or that portion of subclause (III) that relates to subclause (I)) of section 205(c)(2)(B)(i) of the Social Security Act, and (ii) before the due date for such return.

In the case of a taxable year beginning after 2024, the $1,400 amount in subsection (h)(5) shall be increased

In the case of a taxable year beginning after 2025, the $2,200 amount in subsection (h)(2) shall be increased

If any increase under this subsection is not a multiple of $100, such increase shall be rounded to the next lowest multiple of $100.

shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2024.

by striking $50,000 ($100,000 in the case of a joint return) each place it appears and inserting $75,000 ($150,000 in the case of a joint return).

shall be equal to the greater of— (A) the amount of such deduction determined without regard to this subsection, or (B) $400.

a taxpayer whose aggregate qualified business income with respect to all active qualified trades or businesses of the taxpayer for such taxable year is at least $1,000.

any qualified trade or business of the taxpayer in which the taxpayer materially participates (within the meaning of section 469(h)).

In the case of any taxable year beginning after 2026, the $400 amount in paragraph (1)(B) and the $1,000 amount in paragraph (2)(A) shall each be increased

If any increase under this paragraph is not a multiple of $5, such increase shall be rounded to the nearest multiple of $5.

shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

Section 2010(c)(3) is amended— (1) in subparagraph (A) by striking $5,000,000 and inserting $15,000,000, (2) in subparagraph (B)— (A) in the matter preceding clause (i), by striking 2011 and inserting 2026, and (B) in clause (ii), by striking calendar year 2010 and inserting calendar year 2025, and (3) by striking subparagraph (C).

shall apply to estates of decedents dying and gifts made after December 31, 2025.

Section 55(d)(4) is amended— (1) in subparagraph (A), by striking , and before January 1, 2026,

by striking 2018 and inserting 2018 (2026, in the case of the $1,000,000 amount in subparagraph (A)(ii)(I))

calendar year 2025, in the case of the $1,000,000 amount in subparagraph (A)(ii)(I).

by substituting 50 percent for 25 percent

shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

Section 163(h)(3)(F) is amended— (1) in clause (i)— (A) by striking , and before January 1, 2026,

(III) Mortgage insurance premiums treated as interest Clause (iv) of subparagraph (E) shall not apply.

shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

in subparagraph (A), by striking , and before January 1, 2026,

by striking (i)(5)) and inserting (i)(5)) or a State declared disaster.

any natural catastrophe (including any hurricane, tornado, storm, high water, wind-driven water, tidal wave, tsunami, earthquake, volcanic eruption, landslide, mudslide, snowstorm, or drought), or, regardless of cause, any fire, flood, or explosion, in any part of the State, which in the determination of the Governor of such State (or the Mayor, in the case of the District of Columbia) and the Secretary causes damage of sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant the application of the rules of this section.

The term State includes the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.

shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

Section 67(g) is amended— (1) by striking , and before January 1, 2026,

(13) the deductions allowed by section 162 for educator expenses (as defined in subsection (g)).

(A) without regard to the dollar limitation, (B) without regard to (other than nonathletic supplies for courses of instruction in health or physical education) in clause (ii) thereof, and (C) by substituting as part of instructional activity for in the classroom in clause (ii) thereof, and (2) section 62(d)(1)(A) were applied by inserting , interscholastic sports administrator or coach, after counselor.

shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

shall be reduced by 2/37 of the lesser of— (1) such amount of itemized deductions, or (2) so much of the taxable income of the taxpayer for the taxable year (determined without regard to this section and increased by such amount of itemized deductions) as exceeds the dollar amount at which the 37 percent rate bracket under section 1 begins with respect to the taxpayer.

This section shall be applied after the application of any other limitation on the allowance of any itemized deduction.

Section 199A(e)(1) is amended by inserting without regard to section 68 and after shall be computed.

Section 199A(g)(2)(B) is amended by inserting section 68 or after without regard to.

shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

Section 132(f) is amended— (1) by striking subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1)

(3) by striking (other than a qualified bicycle commuting reimbursement) in paragraph (4), (4) by striking subparagraph (F) of paragraph (5), and (5) by striking paragraph (8).

by striking 1998 in clause (ii) and inserting 1997.

Subsection (l) of section 274 is amended— (1) by striking benefits.— and all that follows through No deduction and inserting benefits.—No deduction, and (2) by striking paragraph (2).

shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

Section 217(k) is amended— (1) by striking , and before January 1, 2026,

An employee or new appointee of the intelligence community (as defined in section 3 of the National Security Act of 1947 (50 U.S.C. 3003)) (other than a member of the Armed Forces of the United States) who moves pursuant to a change in assignment which requires relocation shall be treated for purposes of this section in the same manner as an individual to whom subsection (g) applies.

Section 132(g)(2) is amended— (1) by striking , and before January 1, 2026,

by inserting , or an employee or new appointee of the intelligence community (as defined in section 3 of the National Security Act of 1947 (50 U.S.C. 3003)) (other than a member of the Armed Forces of the United States) who moves pursuant to a change in assignment that requires relocation after change of station.

shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

(A) shall be equal to 90 percent of the amount of such losses during such taxable year, and (B) shall be allowed only to the extent of the gains from such transactions during such taxable year.

the term losses from wagering transactions includes any deduction otherwise allowable under this chapter incurred in carrying on any wagering transaction.

shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

Section 529A(b)(2)(B) is amended— (1) in clause (i), by inserting (determined by substituting 1996 for 1997 in paragraph (2)(B) thereof) after section 2503(b), and (2) in clause (ii), by striking before January 1, 2026.

the amendments made by this section shall apply to contributions made after December 31, 2025. (2) Modified inflation adjustment The amendment made by subsection (a)(1) shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

70117. Extension of rollovers from qualified tuition programs to ABLE accounts permitted (a) In general Section 529(c)(3)(C)(i)(III) is amended by striking before January 1, 2026,. (b) Effective date The amendment made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

the sum of— (A) the amount of contributions made by the eligible individual during such taxable year to the ABLE account (within the meaning of section 529A) of which such individual is the designated beneficiary, and (B) in the case of any taxable year beginning before January 1, 2027

Paragraph (1) of section 103(e) of the SECURE 2.0 Act of 2022 is repealed, and the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 shall be applied and administered as though such paragraph were never enacted.

The amendments and repeal made by this subsection shall apply to taxable years ending after December 31, 2025.

Section 25B(a) is amended by striking $2,000 and inserting $2,100. (2) Effective date The amendment made by this subsection shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2026.

Section 11026(a) of Public Law 115–97 is amended by striking , with respect to the applicable period.

but only during the period for which any member of the Armed Forces of the United States is entitled to special pay under section 310 of title 37, United States Code (relating to special pay; duty subject to hostile fire or imminent danger), for services performed in such location: (1) the Sinai Peninsula of Egypt. (2) Kenya. (3) Mali. (4) Burkina Faso. (5) Chad.

shall take effect on January 1, 2026.

gross income does not include any amount which (but for this subsection) would be includible in gross income for such taxable year by reason of the discharge (in whole or in part) of any loan described in subparagraph (B), if such discharge was— (i) pursuant to subsection (a) or (d) of section 437 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 or the parallel benefit under part D of title IV of such Act (relating to the repayment of loan liability), (ii) pursuant to section 464(c)(1)(F) of such Act, or (iii) otherwise discharged on account of death or total and permanent disability of the student.

(i) a student loan (as defined in paragraph (2)), or (ii) a private education loan (as defined in section 140(a) of the Consumer Credit Protection Act (15 U.S.C. 1650(a)).

unless the taxpayer includes the taxpayer's social security number on the return of tax for such taxable year.

the term social security number has the meaning given such term in section 24(h)(7).

Omission of correct social security number treated as mathematical or clerical error

shall apply to discharges after December 31, 2025.

the applicable limitation amount (half the applicable limitation amount in the case of a married individual filing a separate return)

(i) in the case of any taxable year beginning in calendar year 2025, $40,000, (ii) in the case of any taxable year beginning in calendar year 2026, $40,400, (iii) in the case of any taxable year beginning after calendar year 2026 and before 2030, 101 percent of the dollar amount in effect under this subparagraph for taxable years beginning in the preceding calendar year, and (iv) in the case of any taxable year beginning after calendar year 2029, $10,000.

in the case of any taxable year beginning before January 1, 2030, the applicable limitation amount shall be reduced by 30 percent of the excess (if any) of the taxpayer's modified adjusted gross income over the threshold amount (half the threshold amount in the case of a married individual filing a separate return).

(I) in the case of any taxable year beginning in calendar year 2025, $500,000, (II) in the case of any taxable year beginning in calendar year 2026, $505,000, and (III) in the case of any taxable year beginning after calendar year 2026, 101 percent of the dollar amount in effect under this subparagraph for taxable years beginning in the preceding calendar year.

shall not result in the applicable limitation amount being less than $10,000.

There shall be allowed as a deduction an amount equal to the qualified tips received during the taxable year that are included on statements furnished to the individual pursuant to section 6041(d)(3), 6041A(e)(3), 6050W(f)(2), or 6051(a)(18), or reported by the taxpayer on Form 4137 (or successor).

shall not exceed $25,000.

shall be reduced (but not below zero) by $100 for each $1,000 by which the taxpayer's modified adjusted gross income exceeds $150,000 ($300,000 in the case of a joint return).

No deduction shall be allowed under this section unless the taxpayer includes on the return of tax for the taxable year such individual's social security number.

this section shall apply only if the taxpayer and the taxpayer's spouse file a joint return for the taxable year.

No deduction shall be allowed under this section for any taxable year beginning after December 31, 2028.

(b) Deduction allowed to non-itemizers

shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2024.

cash tips received by an individual in an occupation which customarily and regularly received tips on or before December 31, 2024, as provided by the Secretary.

(A) such amount is paid voluntarily without any consequence in the event of nonpayment, is not the subject of negotiation, and is determined by the payor, (B) the trade or business in the course of which the individual receives such amount is not a specified service trade or business (as defined in section 199A(d)(2)), and (C) such other requirements as may be established by the Secretary in regulations or other guidance are satisfied.

such individual shall be treated as receiving tips in the course of a trade or business which is a specified service trade or business if the trade or business of the employer is a specified service trade or business.

cash tips includes tips received from customers that are paid in cash or charged and, in the case of an employee, tips received under any tip-sharing arrangement.

only to the extent that the gross income for the taxpayer from such trade or business for such taxable year (including such qualified tips) exceeds the sum of the deductions (other than the deduction allowed under this section) allocable to the trade or business

(d) Exclusion from qualified business income

(D) any amount with respect to which a deduction is allowable to the taxpayer under section 224(a) for the taxable year.

(e) Extension of tip credit to beauty service business

if the tipping of employees providing such services is customary: (i) Barbering and hair care. (ii) Nail care. (iii) Esthetics. (iv) Body and spa treatments.

The Secretary shall prescribe such regulations or other guidance as may be necessary to prevent reclassification of income as qualified tips

Not later than 90 days after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of the Treasury (or the Secretary's delegate) shall publish a list of occupations which customarily and regularly received tips on or before December 31, 2024

including a separate accounting of any such amounts reasonably designated as cash tips and the occupation described in section 224(d)(1) of the person receiving such tips

for taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025, to take into account the deduction allowed under section 224

In the case of any cash tips required to be reported for periods before January 1, 2026

may approximate a separate accounting of amounts designated as cash tips by any reasonable method specified by the Secretary.

There shall be allowed as a deduction an amount equal to the qualified overtime compensation received during the taxable year and included on statements furnished to the individual pursuant to section 6041(d)(4) or 6051(a)(19).

overtime compensation paid to an individual required under section 7 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 that is in excess of the regular rate

Such term shall not include any qualified tip (as defined in section 224(d)).

shall not exceed $12,500 ($25,000 in the case of a joint return).

shall be reduced (but not below zero) by $100 for each $1,000 by which the taxpayer's modified adjusted gross income exceeds $150,000 ($300,000 in the case of a joint return).

No deduction shall be allowed under this section unless the taxpayer includes on the return of tax for the taxable year such individual's social security number.

this section shall apply only if the taxpayer and the taxpayer's spouse file a joint return for the taxable year.

No deduction shall be allowed under this section for any taxable year beginning after December 31, 2028.

(b) Deduction allowed to non-itemizers

shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2024.

(19) the total amount of qualified overtime compensation (as defined in section 225(c)).

and a separate accounting of any amount of qualified overtime compensation (as defined in section 225(c))

including regulations or other guidance to prevent abuse of the deduction allowed by this section.

shall modify the procedures prescribed under section 3402(a) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 for taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025

In the case of qualified overtime compensation required to be reported for periods before January 1, 2026

may approximate a separate accounting of amounts designated as qualified overtime compensation by any reasonable method specified by the Secretary.

adjusted gross income of the taxpayer for the taxable year increased by any amount excluded from gross income under section 911, 931, or 933.

adjusted gross income increased by any amount excluded from gross income under section 911, 931, or 933.

adjusted gross income of the taxpayer for the taxable year increased by any amount excluded from gross income under section 911, 931, or 933.

adjusted gross income of the taxpayer for the taxable year increased by any amount excluded from gross income under section 911, 931, or 933.

adjusted gross income of the taxpayer for the taxable year increased by any amount excluded from gross income under section 911, 931, or 933.

In the case of taxable years beginning after December 31, 2024, and before January 1, 2029

interest which is paid or accrued during the taxable year on indebtedness incurred by the taxpayer after December 31, 2024, for the purchase of, and that is secured by a first lien on, an applicable passenger vehicle for personal use.

shall not exceed $10,000.

shall be reduced (but not below zero) by $200 for each $1,000 (or portion thereof) by which the modified adjusted gross income of the taxpayer for the taxable year exceeds $100,000 ($200,000 in the case of a joint return).

unless the taxpayer includes the vehicle identification number of the applicable passenger vehicle described in clause (i) on the return of tax for the taxable year.

(b) Deduction allowed to non-itemizers

(i) the original use of which commences with the taxpayer, (ii) which is manufactured primarily for use on public streets, roads, and highways (not including a vehicle operated exclusively on a rail or rails), (iii) which has at least 2 wheels, (iv) which is a car, minivan, van, sport utility vehicle, pickup truck, or motorcycle, (v) which is treated as a motor vehicle for purposes of title II of the Clean Air Act, and (vi) which has a gross vehicle weight rating of less than 14,000 pounds. Such term shall not include any vehicle the final assembly of which did not occur within the United States.

(I) A loan to finance fleet sales. (II) A loan incurred for the purchase of a commercial vehicle that is not used for personal purposes. (III) Any lease financing. (IV) A loan to finance the purchase of a vehicle with a salvage title. (V) A loan to finance the purchase of a vehicle intended to be used for scrap or parts.

shall not include any indebtedness owed to a person who is related (within the meaning of section 267(b) or 707(b)(1)) to the taxpayer.

indebtedness that results from refinancing any indebtedness described in such subparagraph, and that is secured by a first lien on the applicable passenger vehicle with respect to which the refinanced indebtedness was incurred, but only to the extent the amount of such resulting indebtedness does not exceed the amount of such refinanced indebtedness.

receives from any individual interest aggregating $600 or more for any calendar year on a specified passenger vehicle loan, shall make the return described in subsection (b)

(A) the name and address of the individual from whom the interest described in subsection (a)(2) was received, (B) the amount of such interest received for the calendar year, (C) the amount of outstanding principal on the specified passenger vehicle loan as of the beginning of such calendar year, (D) the date of the origination of such loan, (E) the year, make, model, and vehicle identification number

shall be furnished on or before January 31 of the year following the calendar year for which the return under subsection (a) was required to be made.

(2) Penalties Section 6724(d) is amended

No return shall be required under this section for any period to which section 163(h)(4) does not apply.

Except as provided in this section or under regulations or guidance established by the Secretary, a Trump account shall be treated for purposes of this title in the same manner as an individual retirement account under section 408(a).

which is not designated as a Roth IRA

(A) who has not attained the age of 18 before the close of the calendar year in which the election under subparagraph (C) is made, (B) for whom a social security number (within the meaning of section 24(h)(7)) has been issued before the date on which an election under subsection (C) is made

an election is made under this subparagraph by the Secretary

an election is made under this subparagraph by a person other than the Secretary (at such time and in such manner as the Secretary may prescribe)

No contribution will be accepted— (I) before the date that is 12 months after the date of the enactment of this section

shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

No deduction shall be allowed under section 219 for any contribution which is made before the first day of the calendar year in which the account beneficiary attains age 18.

In the case of any contribution made before the calendar year in which the account beneficiary attains age 18— (A) In general The aggregate amount of contributions (other than exempt contributions) for such calendar year shall not exceed $5,000.

(i) a qualified rollover contribution, (ii) any qualified general contribution, or (iii) any contribution provided under section 6434.

In the case of any taxable year after 2027, the $5,000 amount under subparagraph (A) shall be increased

No part of the account funds will be invested in any asset other than an eligible investment during any period before the first day of the calendar year in which the account beneficiary attains age 18.

any mutual fund or exchange traded fund which— (i) tracks the returns of a qualified index, (ii) does not use leverage, (iii) does not have annual fees and expenses of more than 0.1 percent of the balance of the investment in the fund

(i) the Standard and Poor's 500 stock market index, or (ii) any other index— (I) which is comprised of equity investments in primarily United States companies, and (II) for which regulated futures contracts (as defined in section 1256(g)(1)) are traded on a qualified board or exchange (as defined in section 1256(g)(7)). Such term shall not include any industry or sector-specific index

Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, no distribution shall be allowed before the first day of the calendar year in which the account beneficiary attains age 18.

Paragraph (1) shall not apply to any distribution which is a qualified rollover contribution and the amount of such distribution shall not be included in the gross income of the beneficiary.

a direct trustee-to-trustee transfer from a Trump account maintained for the benefit of the account beneficiary to a Trump account maintained for such beneficiary, but only if the amount of such payment is equal to the entire balance

Paragraph (1) shall not apply to any distribution which is a qualified ABLE rollover contribution and the amount of such distribution shall not be included in the gross income of the beneficiary.

an amount which is paid during the calendar year in which the account beneficiary attains age 17 in a direct trustee-to-trustee transfer from a Trump account maintained for the benefit of the account beneficiary to an ABLE account

but only if the amount of such payment is equal to the entire balance of the Trump account from which the payment is made.

(2) Qualified ABLE rollover contributions exempt from ABLE contribution limitation (A) In general Section 529A(b)(2)(B) is amended by inserting or received in a qualified ABLE rollover contribution described in section 530A(d)(4)(B) after except as provided in the case of contributions under subsection (c)(1)(C).

(A) paragraph (1) shall not apply to the distribution of such excess, (B) the amount of such distribution shall not be included in gross income of the account beneficiary, and (C) the tax imposed by this chapter on the distributee for the taxable year in which the distribution is made shall be increased by 100 percent of the amount of net income attributable to such excess

such account shall cease to be a Trump account as of the date of death

an amount equal to the fair market value of the assets (reduced by the investment in the contract) in such account on such date shall— (i) if such person is not the estate of such beneficiary, be includible in such person’s gross income for the taxable year which includes such date, or (ii) if such person is the estate of such beneficiary, be includible in such beneficiary’s gross income for the last taxable year of such beneficiary.

(i) an entity described in section 170(c)(1) (other than a possession of the United States or a political subdivision thereof) or an Indian tribal government, or (ii) an organization described in section 501(c)(3) and exempt from tax under section 501(a)

is made by the Secretary pursuant to a general funding contribution

equal to the ratio of— (i) the amount of such general funding contribution, to (ii) the number of account beneficiaries in such qualified class.

(i) All account beneficiaries who have not attained the age of 18 before the close of the calendar year in which the contribution is made. (ii) All account beneficiaries who have not attained the age of 18 before the close of the calendar year in which the contribution is made and who reside in one or more States or other qualified geographic areas specified by the terms of the general funding contribution. (iii) All account beneficiaries who have not attained the age of 18 before the close of the calendar year in which the contribution is made and who were born in one or more calendar years specified by the terms of the general funding contribution.

any geographic area in which not less than 5,000 account beneficiaries reside and which is designated by the Secretary

Gross income of an account beneficiary shall not include any qualified general contribution to a Trump account of the account beneficiary.

Gross income of an employee does not include amounts paid by the employer as a contribution to the Trump account of such employee or of any dependent of such employee if the amounts are paid or incurred pursuant to a program which is described in subsection (c).

The amount which may be excluded under subsection (a) with respect to any employee shall not exceed $2,500.

In the case of any taxable year beginning after 2027, the $2,500 amount in paragraph (1) shall be increased

a separate written plan of an employer

such eligible child shall be treated as making a payment against the tax imposed by subtitle A (for the taxable year for which the election was made) in an amount equal to $1,000.

shall be paid by the Secretary to the Trump account

a qualifying child (as defined in section 152(c))— (1) who is born after December 31, 2024, and before January 1, 2029, (2) with respect to whom no prior election has been made under this section by such individual or any other individual, and (3) who is a United States citizen.

unless such individual includes with the election made under this section the social security number of the eligible child

shall not be— (1) subject to reduction or offset pursuant to subsection (c), (d), (e), or (f) of section 6402 or any similar authority permitting offset, or (2) reduced or offset by other assessed Federal taxes that would otherwise be subject to levy or collection.

The period determined under section 6611(a) with respect to any payment under this section shall not begin before January 1, 2028.

(1) if such election was made due to negligence or disregard of the rules or regulations, there shall be imposed a penalty of $500, or (2) if such election was made due to fraud, there shall be imposed a penalty of $1,000.

there is appropriated to the Department of the Treasury, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, $410,000,000, to remain available until September 30, 2034, to carry out the amendments made by this section.

In the case of any Trump account created or organized by the Secretary, the Secretary shall take into account the following criteria in selecting the trustee: (1) The history of reliability and regulatory compliance of the trustee. (2) The customer service experience of the trustee. (3) The costs imposed by the trustee on the account or the account beneficiary.

Such reports shall include information with respect to— (A) contributions (including the amount and source of any contribution in excess of $25 made from a person other than the Secretary, the account beneficiary, or the parent or legal guardian of the account beneficiary), (B) distributions (including distributions which are qualified rollover contributions), (C) the fair market value of the account, (D) the investment in the contract with respect to such account

Not later than 30 days after the date of any qualified rollover contribution, the trustee of the Trump account to which the contribution was made shall make a report to the Secretary.

This subsection shall not apply to any period after the calendar year in which the beneficiary attains age 17.

In the case of any possession of the United States with a mirror code tax system (as defined in section 24(k)), this section shall not be treated as part of the income tax laws of the United States for purposes of determining the income tax law of such possession unless such possession elects to have this section be so treated.

70301. Full expensing for certain business property (a) Made permanent

in paragraph (1)(A), by striking the applicable percentage and inserting 100 percent

Section 168(k)(5)(A)(i) is amended by striking the applicable percentage and inserting 100 percent.

shall apply to property acquired after January 19, 2025.

shall apply to such plants which are planted or grafted after January 19, 2025.

property shall not be treated as acquired after the date on which a written binding contract is entered into for such acquisition.

during the first taxable year ending after January 19, 2025, if the taxpayer elects to have this paragraph apply for such taxable year, paragraph (1)(A) shall be applied— (i) in the case of property which is not described in clause (ii), by substituting 40 percent for 100 percent, or (ii) in the case of property which is described in subparagraph (B) or (C) of paragraph (2), by substituting 60 percent for 100 percent.

any specified plant planted or grafted by the taxpayer during the first taxable year ending after January 19, 2025, if the taxpayer elects to have this paragraph apply for such taxable year, paragraph (5)(A)(i) shall be applied by substituting 40 percent for 100 percent.

there shall be allowed as a deduction any domestic research or experimental expenditures which are paid or incurred by the taxpayer during the taxable year.

in connection with the taxpayer’s trade or business other than such expenditures which are attributable to foreign research

At the election of the taxpayer, made in accordance with regulations or other guidance provided by the Secretary

be allowed an amortization deduction of such expenditures ratably over such period of not less than 60 months as may be selected by the taxpayer (beginning with the month in which the taxpayer first realizes benefits from such expenditures).

This section shall not apply to any expenditure for the acquisition or improvement of land, or for the acquisition or improvement of property to be used in connection with the research or experimentation and of a character which is subject to the allowance under section 167 (relating to allowance for depreciation, etc.) or section 611 (relating to allowance for depletion); but for purposes of this section allowances under section 167, and allowances under section 611, shall be considered as expenditures.

This section shall not apply to any expenditure paid or incurred for the purpose of ascertaining the existence, location, extent, or quality of any deposit of ore or other mineral (including oil and gas).

any amount paid or incurred in connection with the development of any software shall be treated as a research or experimental expenditure.

Except as otherwise provided in this subsection or subsection (f)(1), the amendments made by this section shall apply to amounts paid or incurred in taxable years beginning after December 31, 2024.

by striking a taxpayer's specified research or experimental expenditures and inserting a taxpayer's foreign research or experimental expenditures

by striking over the 5-year period (15-year period in the case of any specified research or experimental expenditures which are attributable to foreign research (within the meaning of section 41(d)(4)(F))) in paragraph (2)(B) and inserting over the 15-year period

The domestic research or experimental expenditures (as defined in section 174A(b)) otherwise taken into account as a deduction or charged to capital account under this chapter shall be reduced by the amount of the credit allowed under section 41(a).

by inserting or reduction to amount realized after no deduction.

shall apply to property disposed, retired, or abandoned after May 12, 2025.

shall not be construed to create any inference with respect to the proper application of section 174(d) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 with respect to taxable years beginning before May 13, 2025.

shall not be construed to create any inference with respect to the proper application of section 280C(c) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 with respect to taxable years beginning before January 1, 2025.

At the election of an eligible taxpayer, paragraphs (1) and (3) of subsection (e) shall each be applied by substituting December 31, 2021 for December 31, 2024.

not later than the date that is 1 year after the date of the enactment of this Act. The taxpayer shall file an amended return for each taxable year affected by such election.

any taxpayer (other than a tax shelter prohibited from using the cash receipts and disbursements method of accounting under section 448(a)(3)) which meets the gross receipts test of section 448(c) for the first taxable year beginning after December 31, 2024.

paid or incurred in taxable years beginning after December 31, 2021, and before January 1, 2025, and which was charged to capital account, a taxpayer may elect— (i) to deduct any remaining unamortized amount with respect to such expenditures in the first taxable year beginning after December 31, 2024, or (ii) to deduct such remaining unamortized amount with respect to such expenditures ratably over the 2-taxable year period beginning with the first taxable year beginning after December 31, 2024.

70303. Modification of limitation on business interest (a) In general Section 163(j)(8)(A)(v) is amended by striking in the case of taxable years beginning before January 1, 2022,. (b) Floor plan financing applicable to certain trailers and campers Section 163(j)(9)(C) is amended by adding at the end the following new flush sentence: Such term shall also include any trailer or camper which is designed to provide temporary living quarters for recreational, camping, or seasonal use and is designed to be towed by, or affixed to, a motor vehicle. . (c) Effective date and special rule (1) In general The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2024. (2) Special rule for short taxable years The Secretary of the Treasury (or the Secretary's delegate) may prescribe such rules as are necessary or appropriate to provide for the application of the amendments made by this section in the case of any taxable year of less than 12 months that begins after December 31, 2024, and ends before the date of the enactment of this Act.

(3) Exceptions Paragraph (2) shall not apply to an individual if the individual is— (A) under 18, or over 65, years of age; (B) medically certified as physically or mentally unfit for employment; (C) a parent or other member of a household with responsibility for a dependent child under 14 years of age; (D) otherwise exempt under subsection (d)(2); (E) a pregnant woman; (F) an Indian or an Urban Indian (as such terms are defined in paragraphs (13) and (28) of section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act); or (G) a California Indian described in section 809(a) of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act.

there shall be allowed as a deduction any domestic research or experimental expenditures which are paid or incurred by the taxpayer during the taxable year.

research or experimental expenditures paid or incurred by the taxpayer in connection with the taxpayer’s trade or business other than such expenditures which are attributable to foreign research

be allowed an amortization deduction of such expenditures ratably over such period of not less than 60 months as may be selected by the taxpayer (beginning with the month in which the taxpayer first realizes benefits from such expenditures).

This section shall not apply to any expenditure for the acquisition or improvement of land, or for the acquisition or improvement of property to be used in connection with the research or experimentation and of a character which is subject to the allowance under section 167 (relating to allowance for depreciation, etc.) or section 611 (relating to allowance for depletion); but for purposes of this section allowances under section 167, and allowances under section 611, shall be considered as expenditures.

This section shall not apply to any expenditure paid or incurred for the purpose of ascertaining the existence, location, extent, or quality of any deposit of ore or other mineral (including oil and gas). (3) Software development For purposes of this section, any amount paid or incurred in connection with the development of any software shall be treated as a research or experimental expenditure.

Except as otherwise provided in this subsection or subsection (f)(1), the amendments made by this section shall apply to amounts paid or incurred in taxable years beginning after December 31, 2024.

Section 45F(a)(1) is amended by striking 25 percent and inserting 40 percent (50 percent in the case of an eligible small business).

The credit allowable under subsection (a) for any taxable year shall not exceed $500,000 ($600,000 in the case of an eligible small business). (2) Inflation adjustment In the case of any taxable year beginning after 2026

a business that meets the gross receipts test of section 448(c), determined— (A) by substituting 5-taxable-year for 3-taxable-year in paragraph (1) thereof, and (B) by substituting 5-year for 3-year in paragraph (3)(A) thereof.

under a contract with an intermediate entity that contracts with one or more qualified child care facilities to provide such child care services

A facility shall not fail to be treated as a qualified child care facility of the taxpayer merely because such facility is jointly owned or operated by the taxpayer and other persons.

The Secretary shall issue such regulations or other guidance as may be necessary to carry out the purposes of this section

The amendments made by this section shall apply to amounts paid or incurred after December 31, 2025.

expenses in connection with enrollment or attendance at, or for students enrolled at or attending, an elementary or secondary public, private, or religious school: (A) Tuition. (B) Curriculum and curricular materials. (C) Books or other instructional materials. (D) Online educational materials.

Tuition for tutoring or educational classes outside of the home, including at a tutoring facility, but only if the tutor or instructor is not related to the student and— (i) is licensed as a teacher in any State, (ii) has taught at an eligible educational institution, or (iii) is a subject matter expert in the relevant subject.

(F) Fees for a nationally standardized norm-referenced achievement test, an advanced placement examination, or any examinations related to college or university admission. (G) Fees for dual enrollment in an institution of higher education. (H) Educational therapies for students with disabilities provided by a licensed or accredited practitioner or provider

The amendment made by this subsection shall apply to distributions made after the date of the enactment of this Act.

The last sentence of section 529(e)(3) is amended by striking $10,000 and inserting $20,000. (2) Effective date The amendment made by this subsection shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

Source snapshot updated 2026-09-19T23:26:15Z. 2025-07-04: Became Public Law No: 119-21.

2025-07-04: Signed by President.

2025-07-03: On motion that the House agree to the Senate amendment Agreed to by recorded vote: 218 - 214 (Roll no. 190). (text: CR H3059-3143)

2025-07-01: Passed Senate with an amendment by Yea-Nay Vote. 51 - 50. Record Vote Number: 372.

using the items and quantities of food described in the report of the Department of Agriculture entitled Thrifty Food Plan, 2021, and each successor report updated pursuant to this subsection

the cost of the thrifty food plan shall be the basis for uniform allotments for all households, regardless of the actual composition of the household

The Secretary shall make household adjustments using the following ratios of household size as a percentage of the maximum 4-person allotment: (A) For a 1-person household, 30 percent. (B) For a 2-person household, 55 percent. (C) For a 3-person household, 79 percent. (D) For a 4-person household, 100 percent. (E) For a 5-person household, 119 percent. (F) For a 6-person household, 143 percent. (G) For a 7-person household, 158 percent. (H) For an 8-person household, 180 percent. (I) For a household of 9 persons or more, an additional 22 percent per person, which additional percentage shall not total more than 200 percent.

(A) make cost adjustments in the thrifty food plan for Hawaii and the urban and rural parts of Alaska to reflect the cost of food in Hawaii and urban and rural Alaska; (B) make cost adjustments in the separate thrifty food plans for Guam and the Virgin Islands of the United States to reflect the cost of food in those States, but not to exceed the cost of food in the 50 States and the District of Columbia; and (C) on October 1, 2025, and on each October 1 thereafter, adjust the cost of the thrifty food plan to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers, published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor, for the most recent 12-month period ending in June.

Not earlier than October 1, 2027, the Secretary may re-evaluate the market baskets of the thrifty food plan based on current food prices, food composition data, consumption patterns, and dietary guidance. (B) Cost neutrality The Secretary shall not increase the cost of the thrifty food plan based on a re-evaluation under this paragraph.

(3) Exceptions Paragraph (2) shall not apply to an individual if the individual is— (A) under 18, or over 65, years of age; (B) medically certified as physically or mentally unfit for employment; (C) a parent or other member of a household with responsibility for a dependent child under 14 years of age; (D) otherwise exempt under subsection (d)(2); (E) a pregnant woman; (F) an Indian or an Urban Indian (as such terms are defined in paragraphs (13) and (28) of section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act); or (G) a California Indian described in section 809(a) of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act.

is in a noncontiguous State and has an unemployment rate that is at or above 1.5 times the national unemployment rate.

the term noncontiguous State means a State that is not 1 of the contiguous 48 States or the District of Columbia. (ii) Exclusions In this paragraph, the term noncontiguous State does not include Guam or the Virgin Islands of the United States.

the Secretary may exempt individuals in a noncontiguous State from compliance with the requirements of paragraph (2) if— (i) the State agency submits to the Secretary a request for that exemption

the Secretary determines that based on that request, the State agency is demonstrating a good faith effort to comply with the requirements of paragraph (2).

An exemption granted under subparagraph (B) shall expire not later than December 31, 2028, and may not be renewed beyond that date.

The Secretary may terminate an exemption granted under subparagraph (B) prior to the expiration date of that exemption if the Secretary determines that the State agency— (I) has failed to comply with the reporting requirements described in subparagraph (E); or (II) based on the information provided pursuant to subparagraph (E), failed to make continued good faith efforts toward compliance with the requirements of this subsection.

(i) quarterly progress reports on the status of the State agency in achieving the milestones toward full compliance described in subparagraph (C)(iii); and (ii) information on specific risks or newly identified barriers or challenges to full compliance, including the plan of the State agency to mitigate those risks, barriers, or challenges.

(a) Made permanent (1) In general Section 168(k)(2)(A) is amended by adding and at the end of clause (i), by striking , and at the end of clause (ii) and inserting a period, and by striking clause (iii).

Section 168(k)(5)(A) is amended by striking planted before January 1, 2027, or is grafted before such date to a plant that has already been planted, in the matter preceding clause (i) and inserting planted or grafted.

in paragraph (1)(A), by striking the applicable percentage and inserting 100 percent

In the case of qualified property placed in service by the taxpayer during the first taxable year ending after January 19, 2025, if the taxpayer elects to have this paragraph apply for such taxable year, paragraph (1)(A) shall be applied— (i) in the case of property which is not described in clause (ii), by substituting 40 percent for 100 percent, or (ii) in the case of property which is described in subparagraph (B) or (C) of paragraph (2), by substituting 60 percent for 100 percent.

In the case of any specified plant planted or grafted by the taxpayer during the first taxable year ending after January 19, 2025, if the taxpayer elects to have this paragraph apply for such taxable year, paragraph (5)(A)(i) shall be applied by substituting 40 percent for 100 percent.

the amendments made by this section shall apply to property acquired after January 19, 2025.

the amendments made by this section shall apply to such plants which are planted or grafted after January 19, 2025.

property shall not be treated as acquired after the date on which a written binding contract is entered into for such acquisition.

there shall be allowed as a deduction any domestic research or experimental expenditures which are paid or incurred by the taxpayer during the taxable year.

research or experimental expenditures paid or incurred by the taxpayer in connection with the taxpayer’s trade or business other than such expenditures which are attributable to foreign research

be allowed an amortization deduction of such expenditures ratably over such period of not less than 60 months as may be selected by the taxpayer (beginning with the month in which the taxpayer first realizes benefits from such expenditures).

This section shall not apply to any expenditure for the acquisition or improvement of land, or for the acquisition or improvement of property to be used in connection with the research or experimentation and of a character which is subject to the allowance under section 167 (relating to allowance for depreciation, etc.) or section 611 (relating to allowance for depletion); but for purposes of this section allowances under section 167, and allowances under section 611, shall be considered as expenditures.

This section shall not apply to any expenditure paid or incurred for the purpose of ascertaining the existence, location, extent, or quality of any deposit of ore or other mineral (including oil and gas). (3) Software development For purposes of this section, any amount paid or incurred in connection with the development of any software shall be treated as a research or experimental expenditure.

Except as otherwise provided in this subsection or subsection (f)(1), the amendments made by this section shall apply to amounts paid or incurred in taxable years beginning after December 31, 2024.

by striking a taxpayer's specified research or experimental expenditures and inserting a taxpayer's foreign research or experimental expenditures

in paragraph (2)(B) and inserting over the 15-year period

The domestic research or experimental expenditures (as defined in section 174A(b)) otherwise taken into account as a deduction or charged to capital account under this chapter shall be reduced by the amount of the credit allowed under section 41(a).

by inserting or reduction to amount realized after no deduction.

The amendment by subsection (b)(1)(C)(ii) shall apply to property disposed, retired, or abandoned after May 12, 2025.

shall not be construed to create any inference with respect to the proper application of section 174(d) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 with respect to taxable years beginning before May 13, 2025.

At the election of an eligible taxpayer, paragraphs (1) and (3) of subsection (e) shall each be applied by substituting December 31, 2021 for December 31, 2024. An election made under this subparagraph shall be made in such manner as the Secretary may provide and not later than the date that is 1 year after the date of the enactment of this Act. The taxpayer shall file an amended return for each taxable year affected by such election.

any taxpayer (other than a tax shelter prohibited from using the cash receipts and disbursements method of accounting under section 448(a)(3)) which meets the gross receipts test of section 448(c) for the first taxable year beginning after December 31, 2024.

which are paid or incurred in taxable years beginning after December 31, 2021, and before January 1, 2025, and which was charged to capital account, a taxpayer may elect— (i) to deduct any remaining unamortized amount with respect to such expenditures in the first taxable year beginning after December 31, 2024, or (ii) to deduct such remaining unamortized amount with respect to such expenditures ratably over the 2-taxable year period beginning with the first taxable year beginning after December 31, 2024.

The Secretary of the Treasury (or the Secretary’s delegate) shall publish such guidance or regulations as may be necessary to carry out the purposes of this paragraph

Section 163(j)(8)(A)(v) is amended by striking in the case of taxable years beginning before January 1, 2022,.

Such term shall also include any trailer or camper which is designed to provide temporary living quarters for recreational, camping, or seasonal use and is designed to be towed by, or affixed to, a motor vehicle.

The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2024.

may prescribe such rules as are necessary or appropriate to provide for the application of the amendments made by this section in the case of any taxable year of less than 12 months that begins after December 31, 2024, and ends before the date of the enactment of this Act.

the paid family and medical leave credit is an amount equal to either of the following (as elected by such employer): (A) The applicable percentage of the amount of wages paid to qualifying employees with respect to any period in which such employees are on family and medical leave. (B) If such employer has an insurance policy with regards to the provision of paid family and medical leave which is in force during the taxable year, the applicable percentage of the total amount of premiums paid or incurred by such employer during such taxable year with respect to such insurance policy.

the rate of payment under the insurance policy shall be determined without regard to whether any qualifying employees were on family and medical leave during the taxable year.

by inserting (or, at the election of the employer, for not less than 6 months) after 1 year or more

is customarily employed for not less than 20 hours per week.

any leave which is paid by a State or local government or required by State or local law— (A) except as provided in subparagraph (B), shall be taken into account in determining the amount of paid family and medical leave provided by the employer, and (B) shall not be taken into account in determining the amount of the paid family and medical leave credit under subsection (a).

No deduction shall be allowed for that portion of the premiums paid or incurred for the taxable year which is equal to that portion of the paid family and medical leave credit which is determined for the taxable year under section 45S(a)(1)(B).

The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

all persons which are treated as a single employer under subsections (b) and (c) of section 414 shall be treated as a single employer.

Subparagraph (A) shall not apply to any person who establishes to the satisfaction of the Secretary that such person has a substantial and legitimate business reason for failing to provide a written policy described in paragraph (1) or (2).

shall not include the operation of a separate line of business, the rate of wages or category of jobs for employees (or any similar basis), or the application of State or local laws relating to family and medical leave, but may include the grouping of employees of a common law employer.

is amended by striking No deduction and inserting Except in the case of an expense described in subsection (e)(8) or (n)(2)(C), no deduction.

Meals provided on certain fishing boats and at certain fish processing facilities not subject to 50 percent limitation

(v) provided— (I) on a fishing vessel, fish processing vessel, or fish tender vessel (as such terms are defined in section 2101 of title 46, United States Code), or (II) at a facility for the processing of fish for commercial use or consumption which— (aa) is located in the United States north of 50 degrees north latitude, and (bb) is not located in a metropolitan statistical area

The amendments made by this section shall apply to amounts paid or incurred after December 31, 2025.

Section 179(b) is amended— (1) in paragraph (1), by striking $1,000,000 and inserting $2,500,000, and (2) in paragraph (2), by striking $2,500,000 and inserting $4,000,000.

by inserting (2025 in the case of the dollar amounts in paragraphs (1) and (2)) after In the case of any taxable year beginning after 2018

in the case of amounts in paragraphs (1) and (2), calendar year 2024 for calendar year 2016

The amendments made by this section shall apply to property placed in service in taxable years beginning after December 31, 2024.

the depreciation deduction provided by section 167(a) for the taxable year in which such property is placed in service shall include an allowance equal to 100 percent of the adjusted basis of the qualified production property

that portion of any nonresidential real property— (i) to which this section applies, (ii) which is used by the taxpayer as an integral part of a qualified production activity, (iii) which is placed in service in the United States or any possession of the United States, (iv) the original use of which commences with the taxpayer, (v) the construction of which begins after January 19, 2025, and before January 1, 2029, (vi) which is designated by the taxpayer in the election made under this subsection, and (vii) which is placed in service before January 1, 2031.

in the case of property with respect to which the taxpayer is a lessor, property used by a lessee shall not be considered to be used by the taxpayer as part of a qualified production activity.

The Secretary may extend the date under subparagraph (A)(vii) with respect to any property that meets the requirements of clauses (i) through (vi) of subparagraph (A) if the Secretary determines that an act of God (as defined in section 101(1) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980) prevents the taxpayer from placing such property in service before such date.

The amendments made by this section shall apply to property placed in service after the date of the enactment of this Act.

shall not include that portion of any nonresidential real property which is used for offices, administrative services, lodging, parking, sales activities, research activities, software development or engineering activities, or other functions unrelated to the manufacturing, production, or refining of tangible personal property.

The term qualified production activity means the manufacturing, production, or refining of a qualified product. The activities of any taxpayer do not constitute manufacturing, production, or refining of a qualified product unless the activities of such taxpayer result in a substantial transformation of the property comprising the product. (E) Production The term production shall not include activities other than agricultural production and chemical production. (F) Qualified product The term qualified product means any tangible personal property if such property is not a food or beverage prepared in the same building as a retail establishment in which such property is sold.

(v) the construction of which begins after January 19, 2025, and before January 1, 2029

In the case of property acquired by the taxpayer during the period described in subparagraph (A)(v), the requirements of clauses (iv) and (v) of subparagraph (A) shall be treated as satisfied if— (I) such property was not used in a qualified production activity (determined without regard to the second sentence of subparagraph (D)) by any person at any time during the period beginning on January 1, 2021, and ending on May 12, 2025, (II) such property was not used by the taxpayer at any time prior to such acquisition, and (III) the acquisition of such property meets the requirements of paragraphs (2)(A), (2)(B), (2)(C), and (3) of section 179(d).

(ii) Written binding contracts For purposes of determining under clause (i)— (I) whether such property is acquired before the period described in subparagraph (A)(v), such property shall be treated as acquired not later than the date on which the taxpayer enters into a written binding contract for such acquisition, and (II) whether such property is acquired after such period, such property shall be treated as acquired not earlier than such date.

If, at any time during the 10-year period beginning on the date that any qualified production property is placed in service by the taxpayer, such property ceases to be used as described in paragraph (2)(A)(ii) and is used by the taxpayer in a productive use not described in paragraph (2)(A)(ii)— (A) section 1245 shall be applied— (i) by treating such property as having been disposed of by the taxpayer as of the first time such property is so used

except as otherwise provided by the Secretary, be made on the taxpayer's return of the tax imposed by this chapter for the taxable year.

may not be revoked except with the consent of the Secretary (and the Secretary shall provide such consent only in extraordinary circumstances).

The term qualified production property shall not include any property to which the alternative depreciation system under subsection (g) applies.

The Secretary shall issue such regulations or other guidance as may be necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of this subsection

providing for the application of paragraph (5) with respect to a change in use described in such paragraph by a transferee following a fully or partially tax free transfer of qualified production property.

70308. Enhancement of advanced manufacturing investment credit (a) In general Section 48D(a) is amended by striking 25 percent and inserting 35 percent. (b) Effective date The amendments made by this section shall apply to property placed in service after December 31, 2025.

Section 142(a)(1) is amended to read as follows: (1) airports and spaceports

any facility located at or in close proximity to a launch site or reentry site used for— (A) manufacturing, assembling, or repairing spacecraft, space cargo, other facilities described in this paragraph, or any component of the foregoing, (B) flight control operations, (C) providing launch services and reentry services, or (D) transferring crew, spaceflight participants, or space cargo to or from spacecraft.

spaceport property located on land leased by a governmental unit from the United States shall not fail to be treated as owned by a governmental unit if the requirements of this paragraph are met by the lease and any subleases of the property.

A facility shall not be required to be available for use by the general public to be treated as a spaceport for purposes of this section.

Manufacturing facilities and industrial parks allowed With respect to spaceports, subsection (c)(2)(E) shall not apply to spaceport property described in paragraph (1)(A).

A bond shall not be treated as federally guaranteed merely because of the payment of rent, user fees, or other charges by the United States (or any agency or instrumentality thereof) in exchange for the use of the spaceport

The amendments made by this section shall apply to obligations issued after the date of the enactment of this Act.

(A) any deduction allowed under section 250(a)(1)(B) (and any deduction allowed under section 164(a)(3) for taxes imposed on amounts described in section 250(a)(1)(B)) to such income, (B) no amount of interest expense or research and experimental expenditures to such income, and (C) any other deduction to such income only if such deduction is directly allocable to such income. Any amount or deduction which would (but for subparagraphs (B) and (C)) have been allocated or apportioned to such income shall only be allocated or apportioned to income which is from sources within the United States.

(c) Effective date The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025. 70312.

Section 960(d)(1) is amended by striking 80 percent and inserting 90 percent.

No credit shall be allowed under section 901 for 10 percent of any foreign income taxes paid or accrued (or deemed paid under subsection (b)(1)) with respect to any amount excluded from gross income under section 959(a) by reason of an inclusion in gross income under section 951A(a).

The amendments made by subsection (a) shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

The amendment made by subsection (b) shall apply to foreign income taxes paid or accrued (or deemed paid under section 960(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986) with respect to any amount excluded from gross income under section 959(a) of such Code by reason of an inclusion in gross income under section 951A(a) of such Code after June 28, 2025.

if a United States person maintains an office or other fixed place of business in a foreign country

(A) is from the sale or exchange outside the United States of inventory property (within the meaning of section 865(i)(1))— (i) which is produced in the United States, (ii) which is for use outside the United States, and (iii) to which the third sentence of section 863(b) applies, and (B) is attributable (determined under rules similar to the rules of section 864(c)(5)) to such office or other fixed place of business, shall be treated as from sources without the United States, except that the amount so treated shall not exceed 50 percent of the income from the sale or exchange of such inventory property.

(b) Effective date The amendment made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

Section 250(a) is amended— (1) by striking 37.5 percent in paragraph (1)(A) and inserting 33.34 percent, (2) by striking 50 percent in paragraph (1)(B) and inserting 40 percent, and (3) by striking paragraph (3). (b) Effective date The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

Section 250(b)(3)(A)(i) is amended— (A) by striking and at the end of subclause (V), (B) by striking over at the end of subclause (VI) and inserting and, and (C) by adding at the end the following new subclause:

except as otherwise provided by the Secretary, any income and gain from the sale or other disposition (including pursuant to the deemed sale or other deemed disposition or a transaction subject to section 367(d)) of— (aa) intangible property (as defined in section 367(d)(4)), and (bb) any other property of a type that is subject to depreciation, amortization, or depletion by the seller

The amendments made by this subsection shall apply to sales or other dispositions (including pursuant to deemed sales or other deemed dispositions or a transaction subject to section 367(d) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986) occurring after June 16, 2025.

expenses and deductions (including taxes), other than interest expense and research or experimental expenditures, properly allocable to such gross income. . (2) Effective date The amendment made by this subsection shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

Section 951A(a) is amended by striking global intangible low-taxed income and inserting net CFC tested income. (2) Repeal of tax-free deemed return on foreign investments Section 951A, as amended by the preceding provisions of this Act, is amended by striking subsections (b) and (d)

Section 250(a)(1)(A) is amended by striking foreign-derived intangible income and inserting foreign-derived deduction eligible income.

Section 250(b), as amended by subsection (a), is amended— (i) by striking paragraphs (1) and (2)

(c) Effective date The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

Section 59A(b) is amended— (1) by striking 10 percent in paragraph (1) and inserting 10.5 percent, and (2) by striking paragraph (2) and by redesignating paragraphs (3) and (4) as paragraphs (2) and (3), respectively.

by striking Except as provided in paragraphs (2) and (3) and inserting Except as provided in paragraph (2).

The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

the limitation under paragraph (1) shall apply to business interest without regard to whether the taxpayer would otherwise deduct such business interest or capitalize such business interest under an interest capitalization provision

shall be applied first to the aggregate amount of business interest which would otherwise be capitalized, and (ii) the remainder (if any) shall be applied to the aggregate amount of business interest which would be deducted.

No portion of any business interest carried forward under paragraph (2) from any taxable year to any succeeding taxable year shall, for purposes of this title (including any interest capitalization provision which previously applied to such portion) be treated as interest to which an interest capitalization provision applies.

Such term shall not include any interest which is capitalized under section 263(g) or 263A(f).

(d) Effective date The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

the amounts included in gross income under sections 951(a), 951A(a), and 78 (and the portion of the deductions allowed under sections 245A(a) (by reason of section 964(e)(4)) and 250(a)(1)(B) by reason of such inclusions), and . (b) Effective date The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

70351. Permanent extension of look-thru rule for related controlled foreign corporations (a) In general Section 954(c)(6)(C) is amended by striking and before January 1, 2026,. (b) Effective date The amendment made by this section shall apply to taxable years of foreign corporations beginning after December 31, 2025.

70352. Repeal of election for 1-month deferral in determination of taxable year of specified foreign corporations (a) In general Section 898(c) is amended by striking paragraph (2) and redesignating paragraph (3) as paragraph (2). (b) Effective date The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years of specified foreign corporations beginning after November 30, 2025.

such corporation’s first taxable year beginning after such date shall end at the same time as the first required year (within the meaning of section 898(c)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986) ending after such date.

the Secretary shall issue regulations or other guidance for allocating foreign taxes that are paid or accrued in such first taxable year and the succeeding taxable year among such taxable years

Subparagraphs (A), (B), and (C) of section 318(a)(3) shall not be applied so as to consider a United States person as owning stock which is owned by a person who is not a United States person.

this subpart (other than sections 951A, 951(b), and 957) shall be applied with respect to such shareholder (separately from, and in addition to, the application of this subpart without regard to this section)

any United States person which would be a United States shareholder with respect to such foreign corporation if— (1) section 951(b) were applied by substituting more than 50 percent for 10 percent or more, and (2) section 958(b) were applied without regard to paragraph (4) thereof.

The Secretary shall prescribe such regulations or other guidance as may be necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of this section

(d) Effective date The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years of foreign corporations beginning after December 31, 2025.

shall not be construed to create any inference with respect to the proper application of any provision of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 with respect to taxable years beginning before the taxable years to which such amendments apply.

each United States shareholder which owns (within the meaning of section 958(a)) stock in such corporation on any day during the CFC year shall include in gross income such shareholder's pro rata share (determined under paragraph (2)) of the corporation’s subpart F income for the CFC year

each United States shareholder which owns (within the meaning of section 958(a)) stock in such corporation on the last day, in the CFC year, on which such corporation is a controlled foreign corporation shall include in gross income the amount determined under section 956 with respect to such shareholder for the CFC year (but only to the extent not excluded from gross income under section 959(a)(2)).

any period of the CFC year during which— (i) such shareholder owned (within the meaning of section 958(a)) such stock, (ii) such shareholder was a United States shareholder of such corporation, and (iii) such corporation was a controlled foreign corporation.

shall be included in gross income for the shareholder's taxable year which includes the last day on which the shareholder owns (within the meaning of section 958(a)) stock in the controlled foreign corporation during such CFC year.

(c) Effective dates (1) In general The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years of foreign corporations beginning after December 31, 2025.

Except to the extent provided by the Secretary of the Treasury (or the Secretary's delegate), a dividend paid (or deemed paid) by a controlled foreign corporation shall not be treated as a dividend for purposes of applying section 951(a)(2)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (as in effect before the amendments made by this section)

(i) was paid (or deemed paid) on or before June 28, 2025, during the taxable year of such controlled foreign corporation which includes such date and the United States shareholder described in section 951(a)(1) of such Code (as so in effect) did not own (within the meaning of section 958(a) of such Code) the stock of such controlled foreign corporation during the portion of such taxable year on or before June 28, 2025, or (ii) was paid (or deemed paid) after June 28, 2025, and before such controlled foreign corporation's first taxable year beginning after December 31, 2025, and (B) such dividend does not increase the taxable income of a United States person that is subject to Federal income tax for the taxable year

Section 45F(a)(1) is amended by striking 25 percent and inserting 40 percent (50 percent in the case of an eligible small business).

The credit allowable under subsection (a) for any taxable year shall not exceed $500,000 ($600,000 in the case of an eligible small business). (2) Inflation adjustment In the case of any taxable year beginning after 2026

a business that meets the gross receipts test of section 448(c), determined— (A) by substituting 5-taxable-year for 3-taxable-year in paragraph (1) thereof, and (B) by substituting 5-year for 3-year in paragraph (3)(A) thereof.

under a contract with an intermediate entity that contracts with one or more qualified child care facilities to provide such child care services

A facility shall not fail to be treated as a qualified child care facility of the taxpayer merely because such facility is jointly owned or operated by the taxpayer and other persons.

The Secretary shall issue such regulations or other guidance as may be necessary to carry out the purposes of this section

The amendments made by this section shall apply to amounts paid or incurred after December 31, 2025.

Portion of credit refundable So much of the credit allowed under paragraph (1) as does not exceed $5,000 shall be treated as a credit allowed under subpart C and not as a credit allowed under this subpart.

If any amount as increased under paragraph (1) is not a multiple of $10, such amount shall be rounded to the nearest multiple of $10.

In the case of the dollar amount in subsection (a)(4), paragraph (1) shall be applied— (A) by substituting 2025 for 2002 in the matter preceding subparagraph (A), and (B) by substituting calendar year 2024 for calendar year 2001 in subparagraph (B) thereof.

Exclusion of refundable portion of credit from carryforward Section 23(c)(1) is amended by striking credit allowable under subsection (a) and inserting portion of the credit allowable under subsection (a) which is allowed under this subpart. (d) Effective date The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2024.

Section 23(d)(3) is amended— (1) in subparagraph (A), by inserting or Indian tribal government after a State, and (2) in subparagraph (B), by inserting or Indian tribal government after such State. (b) Effective date The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2024.

Section 129(a)(2)(A) is amended by striking $5,000 ($2,500 and inserting $7,500 ($3,750. (b) Effective date The amendment made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

the term applicable percentage means 50 percent— (A) reduced (but not below 35 percent) by 1 percentage point for each $2,000 or fraction thereof by which the taxpayer's adjusted gross income for the taxable year exceeds $15,000, and (B) further reduced (but not below 20 percent) by 1 percentage point for each $2,000 ($4,000 in the case of a joint return) or fraction thereof by which the taxpayer's adjusted gross income for the taxable year exceeds $75,000 ($150,000 in the case of a joint return).

The amendment made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

In the case of an individual who is a citizen or resident of the United States

The credit allowed under subsection (a) to any taxpayer for any taxable year shall not exceed $1,700.

shall be reduced by the amount allowed as a credit on any State tax return of the taxpayer for qualified contributions made by the taxpayer during the taxable year.

The term covered State means one of the States, or the District of Columbia, that, for a calendar year, voluntarily elects to participate

a charitable contribution of cash to a scholarship granting organization that uses the contribution to fund scholarships for eligible students solely within the State in which the organization is listed

Any qualified contribution for which a credit is allowed under this section shall not be taken into account as a charitable contribution for purposes of section 170.

No credit may be carried forward under this subsection to any taxable year following the fifth taxable year after the taxable year in which the credit arose.

gross income shall not include any amounts provided to such individual or any dependent of such individual pursuant to a scholarship for qualified elementary or secondary education expenses of an eligible student which is provided by a scholarship granting organization.

the amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years ending after December 31, 2026. (2) Exclusion from gross income The amendments made by subsection (b) shall apply to amounts received after December 31, 2026, in taxable years ending after such date.

income which, for the calendar year prior to the date of the application for a scholarship, is not greater than 300 percent of the area median gross income

is eligible to enroll in a public elementary or secondary school.

The term scholarship granting organization means any organization— (A) which— (i) is described in section 501(c)(3) and exempt from tax under section 501(a), and (ii) is not a private foundation, (B) which prevents the co-mingling of qualified contributions with other amounts by maintaining one or more separate accounts exclusively for qualified contributions, (C) which satisfies the requirements of subsection (d), and (D) which is included on the list submitted for the applicable covered State under subsection (g) for the applicable year.

(A) such organization provides scholarships to 10 or more students who do not all attend the same school, (B) such organization spends not less than 90 percent of the income of the organization on scholarships for eligible students

with a priority for— (i) students awarded a scholarship the previous school year, and (ii) after application of clause (i), any eligible students who have a sibling who was awarded a scholarship from such organization

such organization does not earmark or set aside contributions for scholarships on behalf of any particular student

verifies the annual household income and family size of eligible students who apply for scholarships

A scholarship granting organization may not award a scholarship to any disqualified person.

Not later than January 1 of each calendar year (or, with respect to the first calendar year for which this section applies, as early as practicable), a State that voluntarily elects to participate under this section shall provide to the Secretary a list

Each list submitted under paragraph (1) shall include a certification that the individual, agency, or entity submitting such list on behalf of the State has the authority to perform this function.

The Secretary shall issue such regulations or other guidance as the Secretary determines necessary to carry out the purposes of this section, including regulations or other guidance— (1) providing for enforcement of the requirements under subsections (d) and (g), and (2) with respect to recordkeeping or information reporting

Section 127(c)(1)(B) is amended by striking in the case of payments made before January 1, 2026,.

In the case of any taxable year beginning after 2026, both of the $5,250 amounts in subsection (a)(2) shall each be increased

determined by substituting calendar year 2025 for calendar year 2016

If any increase under paragraph (1) is not a multiple of $50, such increase shall be rounded to the nearest multiple of $50.

The amendment made by this section shall apply to payments made after December 31, 2025.

expenses in connection with enrollment or attendance at, or for students enrolled at or attending, an elementary or secondary public, private, or religious school: (A) Tuition. (B) Curriculum and curricular materials. (C) Books or other instructional materials. (D) Online educational materials.

Tuition for tutoring or educational classes outside of the home, including at a tutoring facility, but only if the tutor or instructor is not related to the student and— (i) is licensed as a teacher in any State, (ii) has taught at an eligible educational institution, or (iii) is a subject matter expert in the relevant subject.

(F) Fees for a nationally standardized norm-referenced achievement test, an advanced placement examination, or any examinations related to college or university admission. (G) Fees for dual enrollment in an institution of higher education. (H) Educational therapies for students with disabilities provided by a licensed or accredited practitioner or provider

The amendment made by this subsection shall apply to distributions made after the date of the enactment of this Act.

The last sentence of section 529(e)(3) is amended by striking $10,000 and inserting $20,000. (2) Effective date The amendment made by this subsection shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

tuition, fees, books, supplies, and equipment required for the enrollment or attendance of a designated beneficiary in a recognized postsecondary credential program

(B) fees for testing if such testing is required to obtain or maintain a recognized postsecondary credential, and (C) fees for continuing education if such education is required to maintain a recognized postsecondary credential.

(A) such program is included on a State list prepared under section 122(d) of the Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (29 U.S.C. 3152(d)), (B) such program is listed in the public directory of the Web Enabled Approval Management System (WEAMS) of the Veterans Benefits Administration

(C) an examination (developed or administered by an organization widely recognized as providing reputable credentials in the occupation) is required to obtain or maintain such credential and such organization recognizes such program as providing training or education which prepares individuals to take such examination, or (D) such program is identified by the Secretary, after consultation with the Secretary of Labor, as being a reputable program

any postsecondary employment credential that is industry recognized

any certificate of completion of an apprenticeship that is registered and certified with the Secretary of Labor

(C) any occupational or professional license issued or recognized by a State or the Federal Government (and any certification that satisfies a condition for obtaining such a license), and (D) any recognized postsecondary credential as defined in section 3(52) of the Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (29 U.S.C. 3102(52)), provided through a program described in paragraph (2)(A).

The amendments made by this section shall apply to distributions made after the date of the enactment of this Act.

(1) 1.4 percent in the case of an institution with a student adjusted endowment of at least $500,000, and not in excess of $750,000, (2) 4 percent in the case of an institution with a student adjusted endowment in excess of $750,000, and not in excess of $2,000,000, and (3) 8 percent in the case of an institution with a student adjusted endowment in excess of $2,000,000.

(1) which had at least 3,000 tuition-paying students during the preceding taxable year, (2) more than 50 percent of the tuition-paying students of which are located in the United States, (3) the student adjusted endowment of which is at least $500,000, and (4) which is not described in the first sentence of section 511(a)(2)(B) (relating to State colleges and universities).

the aggregate fair market value of the assets of such institution (determined as of the end of the preceding taxable year), other than those assets which are used directly in carrying out the institution's exempt purpose, divided by (2) the number of students of such institution.

The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

taking into account any interest income from a student loan made by the applicable educational institution (or any related organization) as gross investment income.

taking into account any Federally-subsidized royalty income as gross investment income.

any otherwise-regulatory-exempt royalty income if any Federal funds were used in the research, development, or creation of the patent, copyright, or other intellectual or intangible property from which such royalty income is derived.

assets and net investment income of any related organization with respect to an educational institution shall be treated as assets and net investment income, respectively, of the educational institution, except that— (A) no such amount shall be taken into account with respect to more than 1 educational institution, and (B) unless such organization is controlled by such institution or is described in section 509(a)(3) with respect to such institution for the taxable year, assets and net investment income which are not intended or available for the use or benefit of the educational institution shall not be taken into account.

the daily average number of full-time students attending such institution (with part-time students taken into account on a full-time student equivalent basis).

Each applicable educational institution described in section 4968(c) which is subject to the requirements of subsection (a) shall include on the return required under subsection (a)— (1) the number of tuition-paying students taken into account under section 4968(c), and (2) the number of students of such institution (determined under the rules of section 4968(e)).

The Secretary shall prescribe such regulations or other guidance as may be necessary to prevent avoidance of the tax under this section

the term covered employee means any employee of an applicable tax-exempt organization (or any predecessor of such an organization) and any former employee of such an organization (or predecessor) who was such an employee during any taxable year beginning after December 31, 2016.

The amendment made by subsection (a) shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

The term qualified higher education expenses includes qualified postsecondary credentialing expenses (as defined in subsection (f)).

(A) tuition, fees, books, supplies, and equipment required for the enrollment or attendance of a designated beneficiary in a recognized postsecondary credential program, or any other expense incurred in connection with enrollment in or attendance at a recognized postsecondary credential program if such expense would, if incurred in connection with enrollment or attendance at an eligible educational institution, be covered under subsection (e)(3)(A), (B) fees for testing if such testing is required to obtain or maintain a recognized postsecondary credential, and (C) fees for continuing education if such education is required to maintain a recognized postsecondary credential.

The amendments made by this section shall apply to distributions made after the date of the enactment of this Act.

In the case of a taxpayer other than a corporation, gross income shall not include— (A) except as provided in paragraphs (3) and (4), 50 percent of any gain from the sale or exchange of qualified small business stock acquired on or before the applicable date and held for more than 5 years, and (B) the applicable percentage of any gain from the sale or exchange of qualified small business stock acquired after the applicable date and held for at least 3 years.

Years stock held: Applicable percentage: 3 years 50% 4 years 75% 5 years or more 100%

The term applicable date means the date of the enactment of this paragraph.

Except as provided in subparagraph (B), the amendments made by this subsection shall apply to taxable years beginning after the date of the enactment of this Act.

a tax equal to the applicable percentage of the net investment income of such institution for the taxable year.

(1) 1.4 percent in the case of an institution with a student adjusted endowment of at least $500,000, and not in excess of $750,000, (2) 4 percent in the case of an institution with a student adjusted endowment in excess of $750,000, and not in excess of $2,000,000, and (3) 8 percent in the case of an institution with a student adjusted endowment in excess of $2,000,000.

(1) which had at least 3,000 tuition-paying students during the preceding taxable year, (2) more than 50 percent of the tuition-paying students of which are located in the United States, (3) the student adjusted endowment of which is at least $500,000, and (4) which is not described in the first sentence of section 511(a)(2)(B) (relating to State colleges and universities).

the aggregate fair market value of the assets of such institution (determined as of the end of the preceding taxable year), other than those assets which are used directly in carrying out the institution's exempt purpose, divided by (2) the number of students of such institution.

The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

70424. Permanent and expanded reinstatement of partial deduction for charitable contributions of individuals who do not elect to itemize

Section 170(p) is amended— (1) by striking $300 ($600 and inserting $1,000 ($2,000, and (2) by striking beginning in 2021.

The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

(A) make cost adjustments in the thrifty food plan for Hawaii and the urban and rural parts of Alaska to reflect the cost of food in Hawaii and urban and rural Alaska; (B) make cost adjustments in the separate thrifty food plans for Guam and the Virgin Islands of the United States to reflect the cost of food in those States, but not to exceed the cost of food in the 50 States and the District of Columbia; and (C) on October 1, 2025, and on each October 1 thereafter, adjust the cost of the thrifty food plan to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers, published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor, for the most recent 12-month period ending in June.

Paragraph (2) shall not apply to an individual if the individual is— (A) under 18, or over 65, years of age; (B) medically certified as physically or mentally unfit for employment; (C) a parent or other member of a household with responsibility for a dependent child under 14 years of age; (D) otherwise exempt under subsection (d)(2); (E) a pregnant woman; (F) an Indian or an Urban Indian (as such terms are defined in paragraphs (13) and (28) of section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act); or (G) a California Indian described in section 809(a) of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act.

Section 25E(g) is amended by striking December 31, 2032 and inserting September 30, 2025.

Section 45W(g) is amended by striking December 31, 2032 and inserting September 30, 2025.

Section 30D(h) is amended by striking placed in service after December 31, 2032 and inserting acquired after September 30, 2025.

Section 25C(h) is amended by striking placed in service and all that follows through December 31, 2032 and inserting placed in service after December 31, 2025.

Any oil furnace or hot water boiler which— (i) meets or exceeds 2021 Energy Star efficiency criteria, and (ii) is rated by the manufacturer for use with fuel blends at least 20 percent of the volume of which consists of an eligible fuel.

Section 25D(h) is amended by striking to property placed in service after December 31, 2034 and inserting with respect to any expenditures made after December 31, 2025.

Gain to which subsection (a)(1)(B) applies shall be included in gross income in the taxable year which includes the earlier of— (A) the date on which such investment is sold or exchanged, or (B) the date which is 5 years after the date the investment in the qualified opportunity fund was made.

In the case of any investment held for at least 5 years, the basis of such investment shall be increased by an amount equal to 10 percent (30 percent in the case of any investment in a qualified rural opportunity fund) of the amount of gain deferred by reason of subsection (a)(1)(A).

(3) Special rule for investments held at least 10 years

the basis of such investment shall be equal to— (A) in the case of an investment sold before the date that is 30 years after the date of the investment, the fair market value of such investment on the date such investment is sold or exchanged, or (B) in any other case, the fair market value of such investment on the date that is 30 years after the date of the investment.

Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, the amendments made by this subsection shall apply to amounts invested in qualified opportunity funds after December 31, 2026.

Repeal of sunset on election Section 1400Z-2(a)(2) is amended to read as follows: (2) Election No election may be made under paragraph (1) with respect to a sale or exchange if an election previously made with respect to such sale or exchange is in effect. .

The term decennial determination date means— (i) July 1, 2026, and (ii) each July 1 of the year that is 10 years after the preceding decennial determination date under this subparagraph.

The term low-income community means any population census tract if— (A) such population census tract has a median family income that— (i) in the case of a population census tract not located within a metropolitan area, does not exceed 70 percent of the statewide median family income, or (ii) in the case of a population census tract located within a metropolitan area, does not exceed 70 percent of the metropolitan area median family income, or (B) such population census tract— (i) has a poverty rate of at least 20 percent, and (ii) has a median family income that— (I) in the case of a population census tract not located within a metropolitan area, does not exceed 125 percent of the statewide median family income, or (II) in the case of a population census tract located within a metropolitan area, does not exceed 125 percent of the metropolitan area median family income.

Source snapshot updated 2026-09-19T23:26:15Z. 2025-07-04: Became Public Law No: 119-21.

2025-07-04: Signed by President.

2025-07-03: On motion that the House agree to the Senate amendment Agreed to by recorded vote: 218 - 214 (Roll no. 190).

2025-07-01: Passed Senate with an amendment by Yea-Nay Vote. 51 - 50. Record Vote Number: 372.

the cost of the thrifty food plan shall be the basis for uniform allotments for all households, regardless of the actual composition of the household

The Secretary shall make household adjustments using the following ratios of household size as a percentage of the maximum 4-person allotment: (A) For a 1-person household, 30 percent. (B) For a 2-person household, 55 percent. (C) For a 3-person household, 79 percent. (D) For a 4-person household, 100 percent. (E) For a 5-person household, 119 percent. (F) For a 6-person household, 143 percent. (G) For a 7-person household, 158 percent. (H) For an 8-person household, 180 percent. (I) For a household of 9 persons or more, an additional 22 percent per person, which additional percentage shall not total more than 200 percent.

(A) make cost adjustments in the thrifty food plan for Hawaii and the urban and rural parts of Alaska to reflect the cost of food in Hawaii and urban and rural Alaska; (B) make cost adjustments in the separate thrifty food plans for Guam and the Virgin Islands of the United States to reflect the cost of food in those States, but not to exceed the cost of food in the 50 States and the District of Columbia; and (C) on October 1, 2025, and on each October 1 thereafter, adjust the cost of the thrifty food plan to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers, published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor, for the most recent 12-month period ending in June.

Not earlier than October 1, 2027, the Secretary may re-evaluate the market baskets of the thrifty food plan based on current food prices, food composition data, consumption patterns, and dietary guidance. (B) Cost neutrality The Secretary shall not increase the cost of the thrifty food plan based on a re-evaluation under this paragraph.

Paragraph (2) shall not apply to an individual if the individual is— (A) under 18, or over 65, years of age; (B) medically certified as physically or mentally unfit for employment; (C) a parent or other member of a household with responsibility for a dependent child under 14 years of age; (D) otherwise exempt under subsection (d)(2); (E) a pregnant woman; (F) an Indian or an Urban Indian (as such terms are defined in paragraphs (13) and (28) of section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act); or (G) a California Indian described in section 809(a) of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act.

by striking clause (ii) and inserting the following: (ii) is in a noncontiguous State and has an unemployment rate that is at or above 1.5 times the national unemployment rate.

the term noncontiguous State means a State that is not 1 of the contiguous 48 States or the District of Columbia. (ii) Exclusions The term noncontiguous State does not include Guam or the Virgin Islands of the United States.

the Secretary may exempt individuals in a noncontiguous State from compliance with the requirements of paragraph (2) if— (i) the State agency submits to the Secretary a request for that exemption, made in such form and at such time as the Secretary may require, and including the information described in subparagraph (C); and (ii) the Secretary determines that based on that request, the State agency is demonstrating a good faith effort to comply with the requirements of paragraph (2).

In this paragraph, the term noncontiguous State does not include Guam or the Virgin Islands of the United States.

An exemption granted under subparagraph (B) shall expire not later than December 31, 2028, and may not be renewed beyond that date.

The Secretary may terminate an exemption granted under subparagraph (B) prior to the expiration date of that exemption if the Secretary determines that the State agency— (I) has failed to comply with the reporting requirements described in subparagraph (E); or (II) based on the information provided pursuant to subparagraph (E), failed to make continued good faith efforts toward compliance with the requirements of this subsection.

quarterly progress reports on the status of the State agency in achieving the milestones toward full compliance described in subparagraph (C)(iii); and (ii) information on specific risks or newly identified barriers or challenges to full compliance, including the plan of the State agency to mitigate those risks, barriers, or challenges.

The term qualified higher education expenses includes qualified postsecondary credentialing expenses (as defined in subsection (f)).

(A) tuition, fees, books, supplies, and equipment required for the enrollment or attendance of a designated beneficiary in a recognized postsecondary credential program, or any other expense incurred in connection with enrollment in or attendance at a recognized postsecondary credential program if such expense would, if incurred in connection with enrollment or attendance at an eligible educational institution, be covered under subsection (e)(3)(A), (B) fees for testing if such testing is required to obtain or maintain a recognized postsecondary credential, and (C) fees for continuing education if such education is required to maintain a recognized postsecondary credential.

The amendments made by this section shall apply to distributions made after the date of the enactment of this Act.

(A) such program is included on a State list prepared under section 122(d) of the Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (29 U.S.C. 3152(d)), (B) such program is listed in the public directory of the Web Enabled Approval Management System (WEAMS) of the Veterans Benefits Administration, or successor directory such program, (C) an examination (developed or administered by an organization widely recognized as providing reputable credentials in the occupation) is required to obtain or maintain such credential and such organization recognizes such program as providing training or education which prepares individuals to take such examination, or (D) such program is identified by the Secretary, after consultation with the Secretary of Labor, as being a reputable program for obtaining a recognized postsecondary credential for purposes of this subparagraph.

(A) any postsecondary employment credential that is industry recognized and is— (i) any postsecondary employment credential issued by a program that is accredited by the Institute for Credentialing Excellence, the National Commission on Certifying Agencies, or the American National Standards Institute, (ii) any postsecondary employment credential that is included in the Credentialing Opportunities On-Line (COOL) directory of credentialing programs (or successor directory) maintained by the Department of Defense or by any branch of the Armed Forces, or (iii) any postsecondary employment credential identified for purposes of this clause by the Secretary, after consultation with the Secretary of Labor, as being industry recognized

(B) any certificate of completion of an apprenticeship that is registered and certified with the Secretary of Labor under the Act of August 16, 1937 (commonly known as the National Apprenticeship Act; 50 Stat. 664, chapter 663; 29 U.S.C. 50 et seq.), (C) any occupational or professional license issued or recognized by a State or the Federal Government (and any certification that satisfies a condition for obtaining such a license)

a tax equal to the applicable percentage of the net investment income of such institution for the taxable year.

(1) 1.4 percent in the case of an institution with a student adjusted endowment of at least $500,000, and not in excess of $750,000, (2) 4 percent in the case of an institution with a student adjusted endowment in excess of $750,000, and not in excess of $2,000,000, and (3) 8 percent in the case of an institution with a student adjusted endowment in excess of $2,000,000.

(1) which had at least 3,000 tuition-paying students during the preceding taxable year, (2) more than 50 percent of the tuition-paying students of which are located in the United States, (3) the student adjusted endowment of which is at least $500,000, and (4) which is not described in the first sentence of section 511(a)(2)(B) (relating to State colleges and universities).

the aggregate fair market value of the assets of such institution (determined as of the end of the preceding taxable year), other than those assets which are used directly in carrying out the institution's exempt purpose, divided by (2) the number of students of such institution.

The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

the daily average number of full-time students attending such institution (with part-time students taken into account on a full-time student equivalent basis).

taking into account any interest income from a student loan made by the applicable educational institution (or any related organization) as gross investment income.

The term Federally-subsidized royalty income means any otherwise-regulatory-exempt royalty income if any Federal funds were used in the research, development, or creation of the patent, copyright, or other intellectual or intangible property from which such royalty income is derived.

assets and net investment income of any related organization with respect to an educational institution shall be treated as assets and net investment income, respectively, of the educational institution, except that— (A) no such amount shall be taken into account with respect to more than 1 educational institution, and (B) unless such organization is controlled by such institution or is described in section 509(a)(3) with respect to such institution for the taxable year, assets and net investment income which are not intended or available for the use or benefit of the educational institution shall not be taken into account.

The Secretary shall prescribe such regulations or other guidance as may be necessary to prevent avoidance of the tax under this section

Each applicable educational institution described in section 4968(c) which is subject to the requirements of subsection (a) shall include on the return required under subsection (a)— (1) the number of tuition-paying students taken into account under section 4968(c), and (2) the number of students of such institution (determined under the rules of section 4968(e)).

the term covered employee means any employee of an applicable tax-exempt organization (or any predecessor of such an organization) and any former employee of such an organization (or predecessor) who was such an employee during any taxable year beginning after December 31, 2016.

The amendment made by subsection (a) shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

The term decennial determination date means— (i) July 1, 2026, and (ii) each July 1 of the year that is 10 years after the preceding decennial determination date under this subparagraph.

A designation as a qualified opportunity zone shall remain in effect for the period beginning on the applicable start date and ending on the day before the date that is 10 years after the applicable start date.

the January 1 following the date on which such qualified opportunity zone was certified and designated by the Secretary under subsection (b)(1)(B).

(3) Repeal of special rule for Puerto Rico Section 1400Z-1(b) is amended by striking paragraph (3).

(B) Puerto Rico The amendment made by paragraph (3) shall take effect on December 31, 2026.

(2) Repeal of rule for contiguous census tracts Section 1400Z-1 is amended by striking subsection (e) and by redesignating subsection (f) as subsection (e).

The amendments made by this subsection shall apply to areas designated under section 1400Z-1 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 after the date of the enactment of this Act.

The term low-income community means any population census tract if— (A) such population census tract has a median family income that— (i) in the case of a population census tract not located within a metropolitan area, does not exceed 70 percent of the statewide median family income, or (ii) in the case of a population census tract located within a metropolitan area, does not exceed 70 percent of the metropolitan area median family income, or (B) such population census tract— (i) has a poverty rate of at least 20 percent, and (ii) has a median family income that— (I) in the case of a population census tract not located within a metropolitan area, does not exceed 125 percent of the statewide median family income, or (II) in the case of a population census tract located within a metropolitan area, does not exceed 125 percent of the metropolitan area median family income.

Gain to which subsection (a)(1)(B) applies shall be included in gross income in the taxable year which includes the earlier of— (A) the date on which such investment is sold or exchanged, or (B) the date which is 5 years after the date the investment in the qualified opportunity fund was made.

In the case of any investment held for at least 5 years, the basis of such investment shall be increased by an amount equal to 10 percent (30 percent in the case of any investment in a qualified rural opportunity fund) of the amount of gain deferred by reason of subsection (a)(1)(A).

(3) Special rule for investments held at least 10 years

the basis of such investment shall be equal to— (A) in the case of an investment sold before the date that is 30 years after the date of the investment, the fair market value of such investment on the date such investment is sold or exchanged, or (B) in any other case, the fair market value of such investment on the date that is 30 years after the date of the investment.

Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, the amendments made by this subsection shall apply to amounts invested in qualified opportunity funds after December 31, 2026.

Repeal of sunset on election Section 1400Z-2(a)(2) is amended to read as follows: (2) Election No election may be made under paragraph (1) with respect to a sale or exchange if an election previously made with respect to such sale or exchange is in effect. .

a qualified opportunity fund that holds at least 90 percent of its assets in qualified opportunity zone property which— (I) is qualified opportunity zone business property substantially all of the use of which, during substantially all of the fund's holding period for such property, was in a qualified opportunity zone comprised entirely of a rural area, or (II) is qualified opportunity zone stock, or a qualified opportunity zone partnership interest, in a qualified opportunity zone business in which substantially all of the tangible property owned or leased is qualified opportunity zone business property described in subsection (d)(3)(A)(i) and substantially all the use of which is in a qualified opportunity zone comprised entirely of a rural area.

The term rural area means any area other than— (I) a city or town that has a population of greater than 50,000 inhabitants, and (II) any urbanized area contiguous and adjacent to a city or town described in subclause (I).

Section 1400Z–2(d)(2)(D)(ii) is amended by inserting (50 percent of such adjusted basis in the case of property in a qualified opportunity zone comprised entirely of a rural area (as defined in subsection (b)(2)(C)(ii)) after the adjusted basis of such property.

(B) Acquisition of qualified opportunity zone property The amendments made by subparagraphs (A) and (B) of paragraph (4) shall apply to property acquired after December 31, 2026. (C) Substantial Improvement The amendment made by paragraph (4)(C) shall take effect on the date of the enactment of this Act.

Every qualified opportunity fund shall file an annual return (at such time and in such manner as the Secretary may prescribe) containing the information described in subsection (b).

Every qualified rural opportunity fund (as defined in section 1400Z–2(b)(2)(C)) shall file the annual return required under subsection (a), and the statements required under subsection (c)

Every applicable qualified opportunity zone business shall furnish to the qualified opportunity fund described in subsection (b) a written statement at such time, in such manner, and setting forth such information as the Secretary may by regulations prescribe for purposes of enabling such qualified opportunity fund to meet the requirements of section 6039K(b)(5).

Every person required to make a return under subsection (a) shall furnish to each person whose name is required to be set forth in such return by reason of subsection (b)(8)

with respect to each person who disposed of an investment in the qualified opportunity fund during the year

any return filed by a qualified opportunity fund or qualified rural opportunity fund under section 6039K shall be filed on magnetic media or other machine-readable form.

The amendments made by this subsection shall apply to taxable years beginning after the date of the enactment of this Act.

fails to file a complete and correct return under such section in the time and in the manner prescribed therefor, such person shall pay a penalty of $500 for each day during which such failure continues.

The maximum penalty under this section on failures with respect to any 1 return shall not exceed $10,000. (2) Large qualified opportunity funds In the case of any failure described in subsection (a) with respect to a fund the gross assets of which (determined on the last day of the taxable year) are in excess of $10,000,000, paragraph (1) shall be applied by substituting $50,000 for $10,000.

If a failure described in subsection (a) is due to intentional disregard, then— (1) subsection (a) shall be applied by substituting $2,500 for $500, (2) subsection (b)(1) shall be applied by substituting $50,000 for $10,000, and (3) subsection (b)(2) shall be applied by substituting $250,000 for $50,000.

In the case of any failure relating to a return required to be filed in a calendar year beginning after 2025, each of the dollar amounts in subsections (a), (b), and (c) shall be increased

there is appropriated, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, $15,000,000, to remain available until September 30, 2028, for necessary expenses of the Internal Revenue Service to make the reports described in paragraph (2).

As soon as practical after the date of the enactment of this Act, and annually thereafter

Beginning with the report submitted under paragraph (2) for the 6th year after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary shall include in such report the impacts and outcomes of a designation of a population census tract as a qualified opportunity zone

In the case of any report submitted under paragraph (2) in the 6th year or the 11th year after the date of the enactment of this Act

shall establish appropriate procedures to ensure that any amounts reported do not disclose taxpayer return information that can be associated with any particular taxpayer or competitive or proprietary information

The Secretary shall make publicly available, with respect to qualified rural opportunity funds, separate reports as required under this subsection

by striking 2018, 2019, 2020, and 2021, and inserting beginning after December 31, 2025,, (B) by striking 1.125 and inserting 1.12

(i) 50 percent or more of the aggregate basis of such building and the land on which the building is located is financed by 1 or more obligations described in subparagraph (A), or (ii) (I) 25 percent or more of the aggregate basis of such building and the land on which the building is located is financed by 1 or more obligations described in subparagraph (A), and (II) 1 or more of such obligations— (aa) are part of an issue the issue date of which is after December 31, 2025, and (bb) provide the financing for not less than 5 percent of the aggregate basis of such building and the land on which the building is located.

The amendment made by this subsection shall apply to buildings placed in service in taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

both the existing building and the separate new building shall be treated as having been placed in service on the date such expenditures are treated as placed in service under section 42(e)(4) of such Code.

Section 45D(f)(1)(H) is amended by striking for for each of calendar years 2020 through 2025 and inserting for each calendar year after 2019.

No amount may be carried under subparagraph (A) to any calendar year afer the fifth calendar year after the calendar year in which the excess described in such subparagraph occurred. For purposes of this subparagraph, any excess described in subparagraph (A) with respect to any calendar year before 2026 shall be treated as occurring in calendar year 2025.

The amendments made by this section shall apply to calendar years beginning after December 31, 2025.

70424. Permanent and expanded reinstatement of partial deduction for charitable contributions of individuals who do not elect to itemize

Section 170(p) is amended— (1) by striking $300 ($600 and inserting $1,000 ($2,000, and (2) by striking beginning in 2021.

The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

Any charitable contribution otherwise allowable (without regard to this subparagraph) as a deduction under this section shall be allowed only to the extent that the aggregate of such contributions exceeds 0.5 percent of the taxpayer's contribution base for the taxable year.

In the case of any taxable year from which an excess is carried forward (determined without regard to this subparagraph) under any carryover rule, the applicable carryover rule shall be applied by increasing the excess determined under such applicable carryover rule for the contribution year (before the application of subparagraph (B)) by the amount attributable to the charitable contributions to which such rule applies which is not allowed as a deduction for the contribution year by reason of subsection (b)(1)(I).

For taxable years beginning after December 31, 2017, any contribution of cash to an organization described in subparagraph (A) shall be allowed as a deduction under subsection (a) to the extent that the aggregate of such contributions does not exceed the excess of— (I) 60 percent of the taxpayer’s contribution base for the taxable year, over (II) the aggregate amount of contributions taken into account under subparagraph (A) for such taxable year.

The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

other than any contribution to which subparagraph (B) or (C) applies, shall be allowed only to the extent that the aggregate of such contributions— (i) exceeds 1 percent of the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year, and (ii) does not exceed 10 percent of the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year.

contributions in such succeeding taxable year (determined without regard to this paragraph) shall be taken into account under subsection (b)(2)(A) before any contribution taken into account by reason of this paragraph.

No charitable contribution may be carried forward under subparagraph (A) to any taxable year following the fifth taxable year after the taxable year in which the charitable contribution was first taken into account.

Contributions disallowed by 1-percent floor carried forward only from years in which 10 percent limitation is exceeded

The amount of charitable contributions carried forward under subparagraph (A) shall be reduced to the extent that such carryfoward would (but for this subparagraph) reduce taxable income (as computed for purposes of the second sentence of section 172(b)(2)) and increase a net operating loss carryover under section 172 to a succeeding taxable year.

The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

70427. Permanent increase in limitation on cover over of tax on distilled spirits (a) In general Paragraph (1) of section 7652(f) is amended to read as follows: (1) $13.25, or . (b) Effective date The amendment made by this section shall apply to distilled spirits brought into the United States after December 31, 2025.

any activity substantially related to participation or investment in fisheries in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands statistical and reporting areas

carried on by an entity identified in section 305(i)(1)(D) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (16 U.S.C. 1855(i)(1)(D)) (as in effect on the date of enactment of this section) shall be considered substantially related to the exercise or performance of the purpose constituting the basis of such entity's exemption under section 501(a) of such Code if the conduct of such activity is in furtherance of 1 or more of the purposes specified in section 305(i)(1)(A) of such Act (as so in effect).

If the assets of a trade or business relating to an activity described in subsection (a) of any subsidiary wholly owned by an entity identified in section 305(i)(1)(D) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (16 U.S.C. 1855(i)(1)(D)) (as in effect on the date of enactment of this section) are transferred to such entity (including in liquidation of such subsidiary) not later than 18 months after the date of the enactment of this Act— (1) no gain or income resulting from such transfer shall be recognized to either such subsidiary or such entity under such Code, and (2) all income derived from such subsidiary from such transferred trade or business shall be exempt from taxation under such Code.

This section shall take effect on the date of the enactment of this Act and shall remain effective during the existence of the western Alaska community development quota program

70429. Adjustment of charitable deduction for certain expenses incurred in support of Native Alaskan subsistence whaling (a) In general Section 170(n)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is amended by striking $10,000 and inserting $50,000. (b) Effective date The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

by striking home construction contract both places it appears and inserting residential construction contract

by inserting (determined by substituting 3-year for 2-year in subparagraph (B)(i) for any residential construction contract which is not a home construction contract)

Section 56(a)(3) is amended by striking any home construction contract (as defined in section 460(e)(6)) and inserting any residential construction contract (as defined in section 460(e)(4)).

The amendments made by this section shall apply to contracts entered into in taxable years beginning after the date of the enactment of this Act.

In the case of a taxpayer other than a corporation, gross income shall not include— (A) except as provided in paragraphs (3) and (4), 50 percent of any gain from the sale or exchange of qualified small business stock acquired on or before the applicable date and held for more than 5 years, and (B) the applicable percentage of any gain from the sale or exchange of qualified small business stock acquired after the applicable date and held for at least 3 years.

Years stock held: Applicable percentage: 3 years 50% 4 years 75% 5 years or more 100%

The term applicable date means the date of the enactment of this paragraph.

Except as provided in subparagraph (B), the amendments made by this subsection shall apply to taxable years beginning after the date of the enactment of this Act.

(A) if such stock was acquired by the taxpayer on or before the applicable date, $10,000,000, reduced by the aggregate amount of eligible gain taken into account by the taxpayer under subsection (a) for prior taxable years

(B) if such stock was acquired by the taxpayer after the applicable date, $15,000,000, reduced by the sum of— (i) the aggregate amount of eligible gain taken into account by the taxpayer under subsection (a) for prior taxable years and attributable to dispositions of stock issued by such corporation and acquired by the taxpayer before, on, or after the applicable date, plus (ii) the aggregate amount of eligible gain taken into account by the taxpayer under subsection (a) for the taxable year and attributable to dispositions of stock issued by such corporation and acquired by the taxpayer on or before the applicable date.

In the case of any taxable year beginning after 2026, the $15,000,000 amount in paragraph (4)(B) shall be increased

If, for any taxable year, the eligible gain attributable to dispositions of stock issued by a corporation and acquired by the taxpayer after the applicable date exceeds the applicable dollar limit, then notwithstanding any increase under subparagraph (A) for any subsequent taxable year, the applicable dollar limit for such subsequent taxable year shall be zero.

In the case of a separate return by a married individual for any taxable year— (i) paragraph (4)(A) shall be applied by substituting $5,000,000 for $10,000,000, and (ii) paragraph (4)(B) shall be applied by substituting one-half of the dollar amount in effect under such paragraph for the taxable year for the amount so in effect.

Subparagraphs (A) and (B) of section 1202(d)(1) are each amended by striking $50,000,000 and inserting $75,000,000.

The amendments made by this subsection shall apply to stock issued after the date of the enactment of this Act.

A third party settlement organization shall be required to report any information under subsection (a) with respect to third party network transactions of any participating payee only if— (1) the amount which would otherwise be reported under subsection (a)(2) with respect to such transactions exceeds $20,000, and (2) the aggregate number of such transactions exceeds 200.

The amendment made by this subsection shall take effect as if included in section 9674 of the American Rescue Plan Act.

shall be treated as a reportable payment only if— (i) the aggregate number of transactions with respect to the participating payee during such calendar year exceeds the number of transactions specified in section 6050W(e)(2), and (ii) the aggregate amount of transactions with respect to the participating payee during such calendar year exceeds the dollar amount specified in section 6050W(e)(1) at the time of such payment.

Subparagraph (A) shall not apply with respect to payments to any participating payee during any calendar year if one or more payments in settlement of third party network transactions made by the payor to the participating payee during the preceding calendar year were reportable payments.

The amendment made by this subsection shall apply to calendar years beginning after December 31, 2024.

Section 6041(a) is amended by striking $600 and inserting $2,000.

In the case of any calendar year after 2026, the dollar amount in subsection (a) shall be increased

If any increase under the preceding sentence is not a multiple of $100, such increase shall be rounded to the nearest multiple of $100.

Section 6041A(a)(2) is amended by striking is $600 or more and inserting equals or exceeds the dollar amount in effect for such calendar year under section 6041(a).

Section 3406(b)(6) is amended— (1) by striking $600 in subparagraph (A) and inserting the dollar amount in effect for such calendar year under section 6041(a)

The amendments made by this section shall apply with respect to payments made after December 31, 2025.

Section 181(a)(1) is amended by striking qualified film or television production, and any qualified live theatrical production, and inserting qualified film or television production, any qualified live theatrical production, and any qualified sound recording production.

Paragraph (1) shall not apply to so much of the aggregate cost of any qualified sound recording production, or to so much of the aggregate, cumulative cost of all such qualified sound recording productions in the taxable year, as exceeds $150,000.

the term qualified sound recording production means a sound recording (as defined in section 101 of title 17, United States Code) produced and recorded in the United States.

which is a qualified sound recording production (as defined in subsection (f) of section 181) for which a deduction would have been allowable under section 181 without regard to subsections (a)(2) and (h) of such section or this subsection

a qualified sound recording production shall be considered to be placed in service at the time of initial release or broadcast.

The amendments made by this section shall apply to productions commencing in taxable years ending after the date of the enactment of this Act.

Gross income shall not include 25 percent of the interest received by a qualified lender on any qualified real estate loan.

any loan— (A) secured by— (i) rural or agricultural real estate, or (ii) a leasehold mortgage (with a status as a lien) on rural or agricultural real estate, (B) made to a person other than a specified foreign entity (as defined in section 7701(a)(51)), and (C) made after the date of the enactment of this section.

a loan shall not be treated as made after the date of the enactment of this section to the extent that the proceeds of such loan are used to refinance a loan which was made on or before the date of the enactment of this section

(A) any real property which is substantially used for the production of one or more agricultural products, (B) any real property which is substantially used in the trade or business of fishing or seafood processing, and (C) any aquaculture facility. Such term shall not include any property which is not located in a State or a possession of the United States.

The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years ending after the date of the enactment of this Act.

(1) any bank or savings association the deposits of which are insured under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 et seq.), (2) any State- or federally-regulated insurance company

(3) any entity wholly owned, directly or indirectly, by a company that is treated as a bank holding company for purposes of section 8 of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3106) if— (A) such entity is organized, incorporated, or established under the laws of the United States or any State, and (B) the principal place of business of such entity is in the United States (including any territory of the United States), (4) any entity wholly owned, directly or indirectly, by a company that is considered an insurance holding company under the laws of any State if such entity satisfies the requirements described in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of paragraph (3), and (5) with respect to interest received on a qualified real estate loan secured by real estate described in subsection (c)(3)(A), any federally chartered instrumentality of the United States established under section 8.1(a) of the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (12 U.S.C. 2279aa-1(a)).

by substituting 25 percent of the interest on indebtedness for Interest on indebtedness in such subsection (a)(2), (3) by treating 25 percent of the adjusted basis of any qualified real estate loan as adjusted basis of a tax-exempt obligation described in subsection (b)(4)(B) thereof

on firearms transferred a tax at the rate of— (1) $200 for each firearm transferred in the case of a machinegun or a destructive device, and (2) $0 for any firearm transferred which is not described in paragraph (1).

upon the making of a firearm a tax at the rate of— (1) $200 for each firearm made in the case of a machinegun or a destructive device, and (2) $0 for any firearm made which is not described in paragraph (1).

any firearm described in section 5811(a)(2) shall be deemed to be a firearm on which the tax provided by section 5811 has been paid.

The amendments made by this section shall apply to calendar quarters beginning more than 90 days after the date of the enactment of this Act.

In the case of gain from the sale or exchange of qualified farmland property to a qualified farmer, at the election of the taxpayer

shall be paid in 4 equal installments.

real property located in the United States— (i) which— (I) has been used by the taxpayer as a farm for farming purposes, or (II) leased by the taxpayer to a qualified farmer for farming purposes, during substantially all of the 10-year period ending on the date of the qualified sale or exchange, and (ii) which is subject to a covenant or other legally enforceable restriction which prohibits the use of such property other than as a farm for farming purposes for any period before the date that is 10 years after the date of the sale or exchange described in subsection (a).

The term qualified farmer means any individual who is actively engaged in farming

shall include with the return for the taxable year of the sale or exchange described in subsection (a) a copy of the covenant or other legally enforceable restriction

The amendments made by this section shall apply to sales or exchanges in taxable years beginning after the date of the enactment of this Act.

the first installment shall be paid on the due date (determined without regard to any extension of time for filing the return) for the return of tax for the taxable year in which the sale or exchange occurs and each succeeding installment shall be paid on the due date (as so determined) for the return of tax for the taxable year following the taxable year with respect to which the preceding installment was made.

Any election under subsection (a) shall be made not later than the due date for the return of tax for the taxable year described in subsection (a).

the election under subsection (a) shall be made at the partner or shareholder level.

If there is an addition to tax for failure to timely pay any installment required under this section, then the unpaid portion of all remaining installments shall be due on the date of such failure.

if the individual dies, then the unpaid portion of all remaining installment shall be paid on the due date for the return of tax for the taxable year in which the taxpayer dies.

if there is a liquidation or sale of substantially all the assets of the taxpayer (including in a title 11 or similar case), a cessation of business by the taxpayer (in the case of a C corporation), or any similar circumstance, then the unpaid portion of all remaining installments shall be due on the date of such event

The preceding sentence shall not apply to the sale of substantially all the assets of a taxpayer to a buyer if such buyer enters into an agreement with the Secretary under which such buyer is liable for the remaining installments

the deficiency shall be prorated to the installments payable under subsection (a).

This section shall not apply if the deficiency is due to negligence, to intentional disregard of rules and regulations, or to fraud with intent to evade tax.

For purposes of applying section 304(b) of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2020 (division EE of Public Law 116–260), section 301 of such Act shall be applied by substituting the date of the enactment of this section for the date of the enactment of this Act each place it appears.

70439. Restoration of taxable REIT subsidiary asset test (a) In general Section 856(c)(4)(B)(ii) is amended by striking 20 percent and inserting 25 percent. (b) Effective date The amendment made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

Section 25E(g) is amended by striking December 31, 2032 and inserting September 30, 2025.

Section 45W(g) is amended by striking December 31, 2032 and inserting September 30, 2025.

Section 30D(h) is amended by striking placed in service after December 31, 2032 and inserting acquired after September 30, 2025.

70504. Termination of alternative fuel vehicle refueling property credit Section 30C(i) is amended by striking December 31, 2032 and inserting June 30, 2026.

70508. Termination of new energy efficient home credit Section 45L(h) is amended by striking December 31, 2032 and inserting June 30, 2026.

This section shall not apply with respect to property the construction of which begins after June 30, 2026.

Section 25C(h) is amended by striking placed in service and all that follows through December 31, 2032 and inserting placed in service after December 31, 2025.

Any oil furnace or hot water boiler which— (i) meets or exceeds 2021 Energy Star efficiency criteria, and (ii) is rated by the manufacturer for use with fuel blends at least 20 percent of the volume of which consists of an eligible fuel.

Section 25D(h) is amended by striking to property placed in service after December 31, 2034 and inserting with respect to any expenditures made after December 31, 2025.

Section 168(e)(3)(B)(vi), as amended by section 13703 of Public Law 117–169, is amended— (1) by striking subclause (I), and (2) by redesignating subclauses (II) and (III) as subclauses (I) and (II), respectively.

The amendments made by subsection (a) shall apply to property the construction of which begins after December 31, 2024.

70511. Termination of clean hydrogen production credit Section 45V(c)(3)(C) is amended by striking January 1, 2033 and inserting January 1, 2028.

No credit shall be determined under subsection (a) for any taxable year beginning after the date of enactment of this paragraph if the taxpayer is a specified foreign entity (as defined in section 7701(a)(51)(B)).

No credit shall be determined under subsection (a) for any taxable year beginning after the date which is 2 years after the date of enactment of this paragraph if the taxpayer is a foreign-influenced entity (as defined in section 7701(a)(51)(D), without regard to clause (i)(II) thereof).

(3) Applicable year For purposes of this subsection, the term applicable year means calendar year 2032. (4) Termination for wind and solar facilities (A) In general This section shall not apply with respect to any applicable facility placed in service after December 31, 2027.

The amendments made by subsection (a) shall apply to facilities the construction of which begins after the date which is 12 months after the date of enactment of this Act.

This section shall not apply to any qualified property placed in service by the taxpayer after December 31, 2027, which is part of an applicable facility.

(C) Exception This paragraph shall not apply with respect to any energy storage technology which is placed in service at any applicable facility.

The amendments made by subsection (a) shall apply to facilities the construction of which begins after the date which is 12 months after the date of enactment of this Act.

The term prohibited foreign entity means a specified foreign entity or a foreign-influenced entity.

the term specified foreign entity means— (i) a foreign entity of concern described in subparagraph (A), (B), (D), or (E) of section 9901(8) of the William M. (Mac) Thornberry National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2021 (Public Law 116–283; 15 U.S.C. 4651), (ii) an entity identified as a Chinese military company operating in the United States in accordance with section 1260H of the William M. (Mac) Thornberry National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2021 (Public Law 116–283; 10 U.S.C. 113 note), (iii) an entity included on a list required by clause (i), (ii), (iv), or (v) of section 2(d)(2)(B) of Public Law 117–78 (135 Stat. 1527), (iv) an entity specified under section 154(b) of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2024 (Public Law 118–31; 10 U.S.C. note prec. 4651), or (v) a foreign-controlled entity.

(aa) a specified foreign entity has the direct authority to appoint a covered officer of such entity, (bb) a single specified foreign entity owns at least 25 percent of such entity, (cc) one or more specified foreign entities own in the aggregate at least 40 percent of such entity, or (dd) at least 15 percent of the debt of such entity has been issued, in the aggregate, to 1 or more specified foreign entities

during the previous taxable year, made a payment to a specified foreign entity pursuant to a contract, agreement, or other arrangement which entitles such specified foreign entity (or an entity related to such specified foreign entity) to exercise effective control over— (aa) any qualified facility or energy storage technology of the taxpayer (or any person related to the taxpayer), or (bb) with respect to any eligible component produced by the taxpayer (or any person related to the taxpayer)— (AA) the extraction, processing, or recycling of any applicable critical mineral, or (BB) the production of an eligible component which is not an applicable critical mineral.

There is hereby imposed on any remittance transfer a tax equal to 1 percent of the amount of such transfer.

shall apply only to any remittance transfer for which the sender provides cash, a money order, a cashier's check, or any other similar physical instrument (as determined by the Secretary)

Subsection (a) shall not apply to any remittance transfer for which the funds being transferred are— (1) withdrawn from an account held in or by a financial institution— (A) which is described in subparagraphs (A) through (H) of section 5312(a)(2) of title 31, United States Code, and (B) that is subject to the requirements under subchapter II of chapter 53 of such title, or (2) funded with a debit card or a credit card which is issued in the United States.

The amendments made by this section shall apply to transfers made after December 31, 2025.

(A) Mail returned to the State by the United States Postal Service with a forwarding address. (B) The National Change of Address Database maintained by the United States Postal Service. (C) A managed care entity (as defined in section 1932(a)(1)(B)) or prepaid inpatient health plan or prepaid ambulatory health plan (as such terms are defined in section 1903(m)(9)(D)) that has a contract under the State plan if the address information is provided to such entity or plan directly from, or verified by such entity or plan directly with, such individual. (D) Other data sources as identified by the State and approved by the Secretary.

the eligibility verification requirements, beginning January 1, 2027, are as follows: (A) Quarterly screening to verify enrollee status The State shall, not less frequently than quarterly, review the Death Master File (as such term is defined in section 203(d) of the Bipartisan Budget Act of 2013) or a successor system

the State shall immediately re-enroll such individual under the State plan (or waiver of such plan), retroactive to the date of such disenrollment.

with respect to any qualified facility or energy storage technology, a material assistance cost ratio which is less than the threshold percentage applicable under subparagraph (B)

(A) make cost adjustments in the thrifty food plan for Hawaii and the urban and rural parts of Alaska to reflect the cost of food in Hawaii and urban and rural Alaska; (B) make cost adjustments in the separate thrifty food plans for Guam and the Virgin Islands of the United States to reflect the cost of food in those States, but not to exceed the cost of food in the 50 States and the District of Columbia; and (C) on October 1, 2025, and on each October 1 thereafter, adjust the cost of the thrifty food plan to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers, published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor, for the most recent 12-month period ending in June.

Not earlier than October 1, 2027, the Secretary may re-evaluate the market baskets of the thrifty food plan based on current food prices, food composition data, consumption patterns, and dietary guidance. (B) Cost neutrality The Secretary shall not increase the cost of the thrifty food plan based on a re-evaluation under this paragraph.

(3) Exceptions Paragraph (2) shall not apply to an individual if the individual is— (A) under 18, or over 65, years of age; (B) medically certified as physically or mentally unfit for employment; (C) a parent or other member of a household with responsibility for a dependent child under 14 years of age; (D) otherwise exempt under subsection (d)(2); (E) a pregnant woman; (F) an Indian or an Urban Indian (as such terms are defined in paragraphs (13) and (28) of section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act); or (G) a California Indian described in section 809(a) of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act.

Section 461(l)(1) is amended by striking and before January 1, 2029, each place it appears.

Section 461(l)(3)(C) is amended— (1) in the matter preceding clause (i), by striking December 31, 2018 and inserting December 31, 2025, and (2) in clause (ii), by striking 2017 and inserting 2024.

The amendments made by subsection (a) shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2026. (2) Adjustment of amounts for calculation of excess business loss The amendments made by subsection (b) shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

Source snapshot updated 2026-09-19T23:26:15Z. 2025-07-04: Became Public Law No: 119-21. 2025-07-04: Became Public Law No: 119-21. 2025-07-04: Signed by President.

using the items and quantities of food described in the report of the Department of Agriculture entitled Thrifty Food Plan, 2021, and each successor report updated pursuant to this subsection

the cost of the thrifty food plan shall be the basis for uniform allotments for all households, regardless of the actual composition of the household

The Secretary shall make household adjustments using the following ratios of household size as a percentage of the maximum 4-person allotment: (A) For a 1-person household, 30 percent. (B) For a 2-person household, 55 percent. (C) For a 3-person household, 79 percent. (D) For a 4-person household, 100 percent. (E) For a 5-person household, 119 percent. (F) For a 6-person household, 143 percent. (G) For a 7-person household, 158 percent. (H) For an 8-person household, 180 percent. (I) For a household of 9 persons or more, an additional 22 percent per person, which additional percentage shall not total more than 200 percent.

(A) make cost adjustments in the thrifty food plan for Hawaii and the urban and rural parts of Alaska to reflect the cost of food in Hawaii and urban and rural Alaska; (B) make cost adjustments in the separate thrifty food plans for Guam and the Virgin Islands of the United States to reflect the cost of food in those States, but not to exceed the cost of food in the 50 States and the District of Columbia; and (C) on October 1, 2025, and on each October 1 thereafter, adjust the cost of the thrifty food plan to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers, published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor, for the most recent 12-month period ending in June.

Not earlier than October 1, 2027, the Secretary may re-evaluate the market baskets of the thrifty food plan based on current food prices, food composition data, consumption patterns, and dietary guidance. (B) Cost neutrality The Secretary shall not increase the cost of the thrifty food plan based on a re-evaluation under this paragraph.

(3) Exceptions Paragraph (2) shall not apply to an individual if the individual is— (A) under 18, or over 65, years of age; (B) medically certified as physically or mentally unfit for employment; (C) a parent or other member of a household with responsibility for a dependent child under 14 years of age; (D) otherwise exempt under subsection (d)(2); (E) a pregnant woman; (F) an Indian or an Urban Indian (as such terms are defined in paragraphs (13) and (28) of section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act); or (G) a California Indian described in section 809(a) of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act.

by striking clause (ii) and inserting the following: (ii) is in a noncontiguous State and has an unemployment rate that is at or above 1.5 times the national unemployment rate.

the term noncontiguous State means a State that is not 1 of the contiguous 48 States or the District of Columbia. (ii) Exclusions In this paragraph, the term noncontiguous State does not include Guam or the Virgin Islands of the United States.

the Secretary may exempt individuals in a noncontiguous State from compliance with the requirements of paragraph (2) if— (i) the State agency submits to the Secretary a request for that exemption, made in such form and at such time as the Secretary may require, and including the information described in subparagraph (C); and (ii) the Secretary determines that based on that request, the State agency is demonstrating a good faith effort to comply with the requirements of paragraph (2).

An exemption granted under subparagraph (B) shall expire not later than December 31, 2028, and may not be renewed beyond that date.

The Secretary may terminate an exemption granted under subparagraph (B) prior to the expiration date of that exemption if the Secretary determines that the State agency— (I) has failed to comply with the reporting requirements described in subparagraph (E); or (II) based on the information provided pursuant to subparagraph (E), failed to make continued good faith efforts toward compliance with the requirements of this subsection.

(i) quarterly progress reports on the status of the State agency in achieving the milestones toward full compliance described in subparagraph (C)(iii); and (ii) information on specific risks or newly identified barriers or challenges to full compliance, including the plan of the State agency to mitigate those risks, barriers, or challenges.

70508. Termination of new energy efficient home credit Section 45L(h) is amended by striking December 31, 2032 and inserting June 30, 2026.

70511. Termination of clean hydrogen production credit Section 45V(c)(3)(C) is amended by striking January 1, 2033 and inserting January 1, 2028.

Section 168(e)(3)(B)(vi), as amended by section 13703 of Public Law 117–169, is amended— (1) by striking subclause (I), and (2) by redesignating subclauses (II) and (III) as subclauses (I) and (II), respectively. (b) Effective date The amendments made by subsection (a) shall apply to property the construction of which begins after December 31, 2024.

No credit shall be determined under subsection (a) for any taxable year beginning after the date of enactment of this paragraph if the taxpayer is a specified foreign entity (as defined in section 7701(a)(51)(B)). (B) Other prohibited foreign entities No credit shall be determined under subsection (a) for any taxable year beginning after the date which is 2 years after the date of enactment of this paragraph if the taxpayer is a foreign-influenced entity (as defined in section 7701(a)(51)(D), without regard to clause (i)(II) thereof).

(3) Applicable year For purposes of this subsection, the term applicable year means calendar year 2032. (4) Termination for wind and solar facilities (A) In general This section shall not apply with respect to any applicable facility placed in service after December 31, 2027.

The amendments made by subsection (a) shall apply to facilities the construction of which begins after the date which is 12 months after the date of enactment of this Act.

This section shall not apply to any qualified property placed in service by the taxpayer after December 31, 2027, which is part of an applicable facility.

(C) Exception This paragraph shall not apply with respect to any energy storage technology which is placed in service at any applicable facility.

The amendments made by subsection (a) shall apply to facilities the construction of which begins after the date which is 12 months after the date of enactment of this Act.

The term qualified facility shall not include any facility for which construction begins after December 31, 2025, if the construction of such facility includes any material assistance from a prohibited foreign entity

No credit shall be determined under subsection (a) for any taxable year if the taxpayer is— (i) a specified foreign entity (as defined in section 7701(a)(51)(B)), or (ii) a foreign-influenced entity (as defined in section 7701(a)(51)(D), without regard to clause (i)(II) thereof). (B) Effective control In the case of a taxpayer for which section 7701(a)(51)(D)(i)(II) is determined to apply for any taxable year, no credit shall be determined under subsection (a) for such taxable year if such determination relates to a qualified facility described in subsection (b)(1).

The terms qualified facility and qualified interconnection property shall not include any facility or property the construction, reconstruction, or erection of which begins after December 31, 2025, if the construction, reconstruction, or erection of such facility or property includes any material assistance from a prohibited foreign entity

The term energy storage technology shall not include any property the construction of which begins after December 31, 2025, if the construction of such property includes any material assistance from a prohibited foreign entity

No credit shall be determined under subsection (a) for any taxable year if the taxpayer is— (i) a specified foreign entity (as defined in section 7701(a)(51)(B)), or (ii) a foreign-influenced entity (as defined in section 7701(a)(51)(D), without regard to clause (i)(II) thereof). (B) Effective control In the case of a taxpayer for which section 7701(a)(51)(D)(i)(II) is determined to apply for any taxable year, no credit shall be determined under subsection (a) for such taxable year if such determination relates to a qualified facility described in subsection (b)(3) or energy storage technology described in subsection (c)(2).

The term prohibited foreign entity means a specified foreign entity or a foreign-influenced entity.

the term specified foreign entity means— (i) a foreign entity of concern described in subparagraph (A), (B), (D), or (E) of section 9901(8) of the William M. (Mac) Thornberry National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2021 (Public Law 116–283; 15 U.S.C. 4651), (ii) an entity identified as a Chinese military company operating in the United States in accordance with section 1260H of the William M. (Mac) Thornberry National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2021 (Public Law 116–283; 10 U.S.C. 113 note), (iii) an entity included on a list required by clause (i), (ii), (iv), or (v) of section 2(d)(2)(B) of Public Law 117–78 (135 Stat. 1527), (iv) an entity specified under section 154(b) of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2024 (Public Law 118–31; 10 U.S.C. note prec. 4651), or (v) a foreign-controlled entity.

(aa) a specified foreign entity has the direct authority to appoint a covered officer of such entity, (bb) a single specified foreign entity owns at least 25 percent of such entity, (cc) one or more specified foreign entities own in the aggregate at least 40 percent of such entity, or (dd) at least 15 percent of the debt of such entity has been issued, in the aggregate, to 1 or more specified foreign entities

during the previous taxable year, made a payment to a specified foreign entity pursuant to a contract, agreement, or other arrangement which entitles such specified foreign entity (or an entity related to such specified foreign entity) to exercise effective control over— (aa) any qualified facility or energy storage technology of the taxpayer (or any person related to the taxpayer), or (bb) with respect to any eligible component produced by the taxpayer (or any person related to the taxpayer)— (AA) the extraction, processing, or recycling of any applicable critical mineral, or (BB) the production of an eligible component which is not an applicable critical mineral.

(DD) A contractual right retained by the contractual counterparty to receive royalties under the licensing agreement or any similar agreement (or payments under any related agreement) beyond the 10th year of the agreement (including modifications or extensions thereof). (EE) A contractual right retained by the contractual counterparty to direct or otherwise require the taxpayer to enter into an agreement for the provision of services for a duration longer than 2 years (including any modifications or extensions thereof).

Item (aa) shall not apply in the case of a bona fide purchase or sale of intellectual property. (BB) Bona fide purchase or sale For purposes of item (aa), any purchase or sale of intellectual property where the agreement provides that ownership of the intellectual property reverts to the contractual counterparty after a period of time shall not be considered a bona-fide purchase or sale.

Not later than December 31, 2026, the Secretary shall issue such guidance as is necessary to carry out the purposes of this subparagraph, including establishment of rules to prevent entities from evading, circumventing, or abusing the application of the restrictions against impermissible technology licensing arrangements with specified foreign entities

(III) Licensing and other agreements (aa) In general In addition to subclause (II), for purposes of clause (i)(II), the term effective control means, with respect to a licensing agreement for the provision of intellectual property (or any other contract, agreement or other arrangement entered into with a contractual counterparty related to such licensing agreement) with respect to a qualified facility, energy storage technology, or the production of an eligible component, any of the following: (AA) A contractual right retained by the contractual counterparty to specify or otherwise direct 1 or more sources of components, subcomponents, or applicable critical minerals utilized in a qualified facility, energy storage technology, or in the production of an eligible component. (BB) A contractual right retained by the contractual counterparty to direct the operation of any qualified facility, any energy storage technology, or any production unit that produces an eligible component. (CC) A contractual right retained by the contractual counterparty to limit the taxpayer’s utilization of intellectual property related to the operation of a qualified facility or energy storage technology, or in the production of an eligible component. (DD) A contractual right retained by the contractual counterparty to receive royalties under the licensing agreement or any similar agreement (or payments under any related agreement) beyond the 10th year of the agreement (including modifications or extensions thereof). (EE) A contractual right retained by the contractual counterparty to direct or otherwise require the taxpayer to enter into an agreement for the provision of services for a duration longer than 2 years (including any modifications or extensions thereof). (FF) Such contract, agreement, or other arrangement does not provide the licensee with all the technical data, information, and know-how necessary to enable the licensee to produce the eligible component or components subject to the contract, agreement, or other arrangement without further involvement from the contractual counterparty or a specified foreign entity. (GG) Such contract, agreement, or other arrangement was entered into (or modified) on or after the date of enactment of this paragraph. (bb) Exception (AA) In general Item (aa) shall not apply in the case of a bona fide purchase or sale of intellectual property. (BB) Bona fide purchase or sale For purposes of item (aa), any purchase or sale of intellectual property where the agreement provides that ownership of the intellectual property reverts to the contractual counterparty after a period of time shall not be considered a bona-fide purchase or sale.

during the previous taxable year, made a payment to a specified foreign entity pursuant to a contract, agreement, or other arrangement which entitles such specified foreign entity (or an entity related to such specified foreign entity) to exercise effective control over— (aa) any qualified facility or energy storage technology of the taxpayer (or any person related to the taxpayer), or (bb) with respect to any eligible component produced by the taxpayer (or any person related to the taxpayer)— (AA) the extraction, processing, or recycling of any applicable critical mineral, or (BB) the production of an eligible component which is not an applicable critical mineral.

Subparagraph (D)(i)(I) shall not apply in the case of any entity— (aa) the securities of which are regularly traded in a manner described in subclause (I), or (bb) for which not less than 80 percent of the equity securities of such entity are owned directly or indirectly by an entity which is described in item (aa).

such entity shall be deemed to be a foreign-controlled entity under subparagraph (C)(v) if such entity is controlled (as determined under subparagraph (G)) by— (I) 1 or more specified foreign entities (as determined without regard to subparagraph (B)(v)) that are each required to report their beneficial ownership pursuant to a rule described in clause (iii)(I)(bb), or (II) 1 or more foreign-controlled entities (as determined without regard to subparagraph (C)(v)) that are each required to report their beneficial ownership pursuant to a rule described in such clause.

(aa) a specified foreign entity has the authority to appoint a covered officer of such entity, (bb) a single specified foreign entity required to report its beneficial ownership under Rule 13d-3 of the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934 (or, in the case of an exchange or market described in clause (i)(I)(cc), an equivalent rule) owns not less than 25 percent of such entity, or (cc) 1 or more specified foreign entities that are each required to report their beneficial ownership under Rule 13d-3 of the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934 own, in the aggregate, not less than 40 percent of such entity, or (II) such entity has issued debt, as part of an original issuance, in excess of 15 percent of its publicly-traded debt to 1 or more specified foreign entities.

with respect to any qualified facility or energy storage technology, a material assistance cost ratio which is less than the threshold percentage applicable under subparagraph (B)

(i) in the case of a qualified facility the construction of which begins— (I) during calendar year 2026, 40 percent, (II) during calendar year 2027, 45 percent, (III) during calendar year 2028, 50 percent, (IV) during calendar year 2029, 55 percent, and (V) after December 31, 2029, 60 percent, and (ii) in the case of energy storage technology the construction of which begins— (I) during calendar year 2026, 55 percent, (II) during calendar year 2027, 60 percent, (III) during calendar year 2028, 65 percent, (IV) during calendar year 2029, 70 percent, and (V) after December 31, 2029, 75 percent.

(aa) the total direct costs to the taxpayer attributable to all manufactured products (including components) which are incorporated into the qualified facility or energy storage technology upon completion of construction, minus (bb) the total direct costs to the taxpayer attributable to all manufactured products (including components) which are— (AA) incorporated into the qualified facility or energy storage technology upon completion of construction, and (BB) mined, produced, or manufactured by a prohibited foreign entity, divided by (II) the amount described in subclause (I)(aa).

(I) in the case of any solar energy component (as such term is defined in section 45X(c)(3)(A)) which is sold— (aa) during calendar year 2026, 50 percent, (bb) during calendar year 2027, 60 percent, (cc) during calendar year 2028, 70 percent, (dd) during calendar year 2029, 80 percent, and (ee) after December 31, 2029, 85 percent, (II) in the case of any wind energy component (as such term is defined in section 45X(c)(4)(A)) which is sold— (aa) during calendar year 2026, 85 percent, and (bb) during calendar year 2027, 90 percent, (III) in the case of any inverter described in subparagraphs (B) through (G) of section 45X(c)(2) which is sold— (aa) during calendar year 2026, 50 percent, (bb) during calendar year 2027, 55 percent, (cc) during calendar year 2028, 60 percent, (dd) during calendar year 2029, 65 percent, and (ee) after December 31, 2029, 70 percent, (IV) in the case of any qualifying battery component (as such term is defined in section 45X(c)(5)(A)) which is sold— (aa) during calendar year 2026, 60 percent, (bb) during calendar year 2027, 65 percent, (cc) during calendar year 2028, 70 percent, (dd) during calendar year 2029, 80 percent, and (ee) after December 31, 2029, 85 percent

(aa) after December 31, 2025, and before January 1, 2030, 0 percent, (bb) during calendar year 2030, 25 percent, (cc) during calendar year 2031, 30 percent, (dd) during calendar year 2032, 40 percent, and (ee) after December 31, 2032, 50 percent.

Not later than December 31, 2027, the Secretary shall issue threshold percentages for each of the applicable critical minerals described in section 45X(c)(6)), which shall— (I) apply in lieu of the threshold percentage determined under clause (i)(V) for each calendar year, and (II) equal or exceed the threshold percentage which would otherwise apply

Not later than December 31, 2026, the Secretary shall issue safe harbor tables (and such other guidance as deemed necessary)

prior to the date on which the Secretary issues the safe harbor tables described in subclause (I), and for construction of a qualified facility or energy storage technology which begins on or before the date which is 60 days after the date of issuance of such tables, a taxpayer may— (aa) use the tables included in Internal Revenue Service Notice 2025–08

if the taxpayer knows (or has reason to know) that the certification referred to in subclause (II)(bb) pertaining to a manufactured product or eligible component is inaccurate, the taxpayer may not rely on such certification.

(AA) the supplier’s employer identification number, or (BB) any such similar identification number issued by a foreign government, (bb) be signed under penalties of perjury, (cc) be retained by the supplier and the taxpayer for a period of not less than 6 years and shall be provided to the Secretary upon request

pursuant to a binding written contract which was entered into prior to June 16, 2025, and (II) (aa) placed into service before January 1, 2030 (or, in the case of an applicable facility, as defined in section 45Y(d)(4)(B), before January 1, 2028) in a facility the construction of which began before August 1, 2025, or (bb) in the case of a constituent element, material, or subcomponent, used in a product sold before January 1, 2030, the cost to the taxpayer with respect to such product, component, element, material, or subcomponent shall not be included for purposes of determining the material assistance cost ratio under this subparagraph.

any abuse of the exception provided under clause (iv) through the stockpiling of any manufactured product, eligible component, or constituent element, material, or subcomponent of an eligible component

for purposes of any qualified facility which is an advanced nuclear facility, a metropolitan statistical area which has (or, at any time during the period beginning after December 31, 2009, had) 0.17 percent or greater direct employment related to the advancement of nuclear power

a facility shall be deemed to have a reactor design which is approved in the manner described in section 45J(d)(2) if the Nuclear Regulatory Commission has authorized construction and issued a site-specific construction permit or combined license with respect to such facility

(2) Nonapplication for clean electricity investment credit Section 48E(a)(3)(A)(i) is amended by inserting , as applied without regard to clause (iv) thereof after section 45(b)(11)(B).

the Secretary shall consider studies published on or before the date of enactment of this clause which demonstrate a net lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions rate which is not greater than zero using widely accepted lifecycle assessment concepts

additions of capacity of a facility shall be determined in any reasonable manner

No credit shall be determined under this section with respect to any production of electricity during the taxable year with respect to property described in paragraph (1) or (4) of section 25D(d) (as applied by substituting lessee for taxpayer) if the taxpayer rents or leases such property to a third party during such taxable year.

No credit shall be determined under this section for any qualified investment during the taxable year with respect to property described in paragraph (1) or (4) of section 25D(d) (as applied by substituting lessee for taxpayer) if the taxpayer rents or leases such property to a third party during such taxable year.

For purposes of this section and section 168, the ownership of energy property described in section 48(a)(3)(A)(vii) shall be determined without regard to whether such property is readily usable by a person other than the lessee or service recipient.

Except as provided in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4), the amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after the date of enactment of this Act.

Except as provided in paragraphs (2), (3), (4), and (5), the amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after the date of enactment of this Act.

With respect to any eligible credit described in clause (iii), (iv), (vi), (vii), (viii), or (xi) of subsection (f)(1)(A), an eligible taxpayer may not elect to transfer any portion of such credit to a taxpayer that is a specified foreign entity

In the case of a deficiency attributable to an error with respect to the determination under section 7701(a)(52) for any taxable year, such deficiency may be assessed at any time within 6 years after the return for such year was filed.

for purposes of determining whether there is a substantial understatement of income tax for such taxable year, subsection (d)(1) shall be applied— (A) in subparagraphs (A) and (B), by substituting 1 percent for 10 percent each place it appears, and (B) without regard to subparagraph (C).

the disallowance of a credit under section 45X, 45Y, or 48E by reason of overstating the material assistance cost ratio

knows, or reasonably should have known, that the certification would be used in connection with a determination under such section

such person knows, or reasonably should have known, that such certification is inaccurate or false

the inaccuracy or falsity described in paragraph (2) resulted in the disallowance of an applicable energy credit (as defined in section 6662(m)(2)) and an understatement of income tax (within the meaning of section 6662(d)(2)) for the taxable year in an amount which exceeds the lesser of— (A) 5 percent of the tax required to be shown on the return for the taxable year, or (B) $100,000

the greater of— (1) 10 percent of the amount of the underpayment (as defined in section 6664(a)) solely attributable to the inaccuracy or falsity described in subsection (a)(2), or (2) $5,000.

No penalty shall be imposed under subsection (a) if the person establishes to the satisfaction of the Secretary that any inaccuracy or falsity described in subsection (a)(2) is due to a reasonable cause and not willful neglect.

The amendments made by subsection (k) shall apply to certifications provided after December 31, 2025.

If there is an applicable payment made by a specified taxpayer before the close of the 10-year period beginning on the date such taxpayer placed in service investment credit property which is eligible for the clean electricity investment credit under section 48E(a), then the tax under this chapter for the taxable year in which such applicable payment occurs shall be increased by 100 percent of the aggregate decrease in the credits allowed under section 38 for all prior taxable years which would have resulted solely from reducing to zero any credit determined under section 46 which is attributable to the clean electricity investment credit under section 48E(a) with respect to such property.

the term applicable payment means, with respect to any taxable year, a payment or payments described in section 7701(a)(51)(D)(i)(II).

the term specified taxpayer means any taxpayer who has been allowed a credit under section 48E(a) for any taxable year beginning after the date which is 2 years after the date of enactment of this paragraph.

(i) In the case of any qualified investment with respect to any qualified facility or energy storage technology the construction of which begins before June 16, 2025, 40 percent (or, in the case of a qualified facility which is an offshore wind facility, 20 percent). (ii) In the case of any qualified investment with respect to any qualified facility or energy storage technology the construction of which begins on or after June 16, 2025, and before January 1, 2026, 45 percent (or, in the case of a qualified facility which is an offshore wind facility, 27.5 percent). (iii) In the case of any qualified investment with respect to any qualified facility or energy storage technology the construction of which begins during calendar year 2026, 50 percent (or, in the case of a qualified facility which is an offshore wind facility, 35 percent). (iv) In the case of any qualified investment with respect to any qualified facility or energy storage technology the construction of which begins after December 31, 2026, 55 percent.

in subparagraph (A)(ii), by striking 2 percent and inserting 0 percent

the energy percentage applicable to such property pursuant to such subparagraph shall not be increased or otherwise adjusted by any provision of this section.

The amendment made by subsection (d) shall apply on or after June 16, 2025. (3) Elimination of energy credit for certain energy property The amendments made by subsection (e) shall apply to property the construction of which begins on or after June 16, 2025.

in the case of any qualified fuel cell property (as defined in section 48(c)(1), as applied without regard to subparagraph (E) thereof)— (1) subsection (b)(3)(A) shall be applied without regard to clause (iii) thereof, (2) for purposes of subsection (a)(1), the applicable percentage shall be 30 percent and such percentage shall not be increased or otherwise adjusted by any other provision of this section, and (3) subsection (g) shall not apply.

The amendments made by subsection (f) shall apply to property the construction of which begins after December 31, 2025.

Phase out percentage for applicable critical minerals other than metallurgical coal The phase out percentage under this clause is equal to— (I) in the case of any applicable critical mineral produced during calendar year 2031, 75 percent, (II) in the case of any applicable critical mineral produced during calendar year 2032, 50 percent, (III) in the case of any applicable critical mineral produced during calendar year 2033, 25 percent, and (IV) in the case of any applicable critical mineral produced after December 31, 2033, 0 percent.

This section shall not apply to any wind energy component produced and sold after December 31, 2027. (E) Termination for metallurgical coal This section shall not apply to any metallurgical coal produced after December 31, 2029.

Metallurgical coal which is suitable for use in the production of steel (within the meaning of the notice published by the Department of Energy entitled ‘Critical Material List; Addition of Metallurgical Coal Used for Steelmaking’ (90 Fed. Reg. 22711 (May 29, 2025))), regardless of whether such production occurs inside or outside of the United States.

Section 45X(b)(1)(M) is amended by inserting (2.5 percent in the case of metallurgical coal) after 10 percent.

such component (referred to in this paragraph as the primary component) is integrated, incorporated, or assembled into another eligible component (referred to in this paragraph as the secondary component) produced within the same manufacturing facility as the primary component, and (ii) the secondary component is sold to an unrelated person.

not less than 65 percent of the total direct material costs which are paid or incurred (within the meaning of section 461 and any regulations issued under section 263A) by the taxpayer to produce such secondary component are attributable to primary components which are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States.

which is comprised of all other essential equipment needed for battery functionality, such as current collector assemblies and voltage sense harnesses, or any other essential energy collection equipment.

the term eligible component shall not include any property which includes any material assistance from a prohibited foreign entity (as defined in section 7701(a)(52), as applied by substituting used in a product sold before January 1, 2027 for used in a product sold before January 1, 2030 in subparagraph (D)(iv)(II)(bb) thereof).

No credit shall be determined under subsection (a) for any taxable year if the taxpayer is— (i) a specified foreign entity (as defined in section 7701(a)(51)(B)), or (ii) a foreign-influenced entity (as defined in section 7701(a)(51)(D), without regard to clause (i)(II) thereof). (B) Effective control In the case of a taxpayer for which section 7701(a)(51)(D)(i)(II) is determined to apply for any taxable year, no credit shall be determined under subsection (a) for such taxable year if such determination relates to an eligible component described in subsection (c)(1).

Except as provided in paragraph (2), the amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after the date of enactment of this Act. (2) Modification of provision relating to sale of integrated components The amendment made by subsection (a) shall apply to components sold during taxable years beginning after December 31, 2026.

Section 48C(e)(3)(C) is amended by striking shall be increased and inserting shall not be increased. (b) Effective date The amendment made by this section shall take effect on the date of enactment of this Act.

such fuel is exclusively derived from a feedstock which was produced or grown in the United States, Mexico, or Canada.

The amendments made by this subsection shall apply to transportation fuel produced after December 31, 2025.

the emissions rate for a transportation fuel may not be less than zero.

the emissions rate shall be adjusted as necessary to exclude any emissions attributed to indirect land use change.

shall provide a distinct emissions rate with respect to such fuel based on the specific animal manure feedstock, which may include dairy manure, swine manure, poultry manure, or any other sources as are determined appropriate by the Secretary, and (II) notwithstanding subparagraph (E), may provide an emissions rate that is less than zero.

The amendments made by this subsection shall apply to emissions rates published for transportation fuel produced after December 31, 2025.

Section 45Z(g) is amended by striking December 31, 2027 and inserting December 31, 2029.

is not produced from a fuel for which a credit under this section is allowable.

With respect to any gallon of sustainable aviation fuel in a qualified mixture, this subsection shall not apply to any such gallon for which a credit under section 45Z is allowable

fuel sold or used before the date of enactment of this Act, but only to the extent that claims for the credit under section 6426(k) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 with respect to such sale or use have not been paid or allowed as of such date.

(2) Elimination of special rate (A) In general Paragraph (3) of section 45Z(a) is amended to read as follows: (3) Definition of sustainable aviation fuel

Section 45Z(c)(1) is amended by striking , the $1.00 amount in subsection (a)(2)(B), the 35 cent amount in subsection (a)(3)(A)(i), and the $1.75 amount in subsection (a)(3)(A)(ii) and inserting and the $1.00 amount in subsection (a)(2)(B). (C) Effective date The amendments made by this paragraph shall apply to fuel produced after December 31, 2025.

This subsection shall not apply to any sale or use for any period after September 30, 2025.

Section 13704(b)(5) of Public Law 117–169 is amended by striking after section 6426(k)(3)), and inserting after section 40B),. (2) Effective date The amendment made by this subsection shall apply to transportation fuel produced after December 31, 2024.

by striking 10 cents and inserting 20 cents

by inserting in a manner which complies with the requirements under section 45Z(f)(1)(A)(iii) after produced by an eligible small agri-biodiesel producer

The credit determined under this paragraph with respect to any gallon of fuel shall be in addition to any credit determined under section 45Z with respect to such gallon of fuel.

in subsection (g), by inserting (or, in the case of the small agri-biodiesel producer credit, any sale or use after December 31, 2026) after December 31, 2024.

(2) Transfer of credit Section 6418(f)(1)(A) is amended by adding at the end the following new clause: (xii) So much of the biodiesel fuels credit determined under section 40A which consists of the small agri-biodiesel producer credit determined under subsection (b)(4) of such section. . (3) Effective date The amendments made by this subsection shall apply to fuel sold or used after June 30, 2025.

No credit shall be determined under subsection (a) for any taxable year beginning after the date of enactment of this paragraph if the taxpayer is a specified foreign entity (as defined in section 7701(a)(51)(B)). (B) Other prohibited foreign entities No credit shall be determined under subsection (a) for any taxable year beginning after the date which is 2 years after the date of enactment of this paragraph if the taxpayer is a foreign-influenced entity (as defined in section 7701(a)(51)(D), without regard to clause (i)(II) thereof).

No credit shall be determined under subsection (a) for any taxable year beginning after the date of enactment of this paragraph if the taxpayer is— (A) a specified foreign entity (as defined in section 7701(a)(51)(B)), or (B) a foreign-influenced entity (as defined in section 7701(a)(51)(D), determined without regard to clause (i)(II) thereof).

(i) disposed of by the taxpayer in secure geological storage and not used by the taxpayer as described in clause (ii) or (iii), (ii) used by the taxpayer as a tertiary injectant in a qualified enhanced oil or natural gas recovery project and disposed of by the taxpayer in secure geological storage, or (iii) utilized by the taxpayer in a manner described in subsection (f)(5).

(i) for any taxable year beginning in a calendar year after 2024 and before 2027, $17, and (ii) for any taxable year beginning in a calendar year after 2026, an amount equal to the product of $17 and the inflation adjustment factor for such calendar year determined under section 43(b)(3)(B) for such calendar year, determined by substituting 2025 for 1990.

in subparagraph (B), by striking shall be applied and all that follows through the period and inserting shall be applied by substituting $36 for $17 each place it appears.

The amendments made subsections (b) and (c) shall apply to facilities or equipment placed in service after the date of enactment of this Act.

reduced by— (i) depreciation deductions allowed under section 167 with respect to property to which section 168 applies to the extent of the amount allowed as deductions in computing taxable income for the year, and (ii) any deduction allowed for expenses under section 263(c) (including any deduction for such expenses under section 59(e) or 291(b)(2)) with respect to property described therein to the extent of the amount allowed as deductions in computing taxable income for the year

to disregard any amount of— (I) depreciation expense that is taken into account on the taxpayer's applicable financial statement with respect to such property, and (II) depletion expense that is taken into account on the taxpayer’s applicable financial statement with respect to the intangible drilling and development costs of such property

The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

70524. Income from hydrogen storage, carbon capture, advanced nuclear, hydropower, and geothermal energy added to qualifying income of certain publicly traded partnerships

(ii) the transportation or storage of— (I) any fuel described in subsection (b), (c), (d), (e), or (k) of section 6426, or any alcohol fuel defined in section 6426(b)(4)(A) or any biodiesel fuel as defined in section 40A(d)(1) or sustainable aviation fuel as defined in section 40B(d)(1), or (II) liquified hydrogen or compressed hydrogen

not less than 50 percent of the total carbon oxide production of which is qualified carbon oxide (as defined in section 45Q(c))— (I) the generation, availability for such generation, or storage of electric power at such facility, or (II) the capture of carbon dioxide by such facility

The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

If a person establishes to the satisfaction of the Secretary that such person meets the requirements of subsection (b) with respect to diesel fuel or kerosene, then the Secretary shall pay to such person an amount (without interest) equal to the tax described in subsection (b)(2)(A) with respect to such diesel fuel or kerosene.

such person removes from a terminal eligible indelibly dyed diesel fuel or kerosene.

(A) with respect to which a tax under section 4081 was previously paid (and not credited or refunded), and (B) which is exempt from taxation under section 4082(a). (c) Cross reference For civil penalty for excessive claims under this section, see section 6675.

The amendments made by this section shall apply to eligible indelibly dyed diesel fuel or kerosene removed on or after the date that is 180 days after the date of the enactment of this section.

Any person who enters, introduces, facilitates, or attempts to introduce an article into the United States using the privilege of this section, the importation of which violates any other provision of United States customs law, shall be assessed, in addition to any other penalty permitted by law, a civil penalty of up to $5,000 for the first violation and up to $10,000 for each subsequent violation.

The amendment made by paragraph (1) shall take effect 30 days after the date of the enactment of this Act.

(b) Repeal of commercial shipment exception (1) Repeal Section 321(a)(2) of such Act (19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)) is amended by striking of this Act, or and all that follows through subdivision (2); and and inserting of this Act; and. (2) Conforming repeal Subsection (c) of such section 321, as added by subsection (a) of this section, is repealed. (3) Effective date The amendments made by this subsection shall take effect on July 1, 2027.

Section 461(l)(1) is amended by striking and before January 1, 2029, each place it appears.

Section 461(l)(3)(C) is amended— (1) in the matter preceding clause (i), by striking December 31, 2018 and inserting December 31, 2025, and (2) in clause (ii), by striking 2017 and inserting 2024.

The amendments made by subsection (a) shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2026. (2) Adjustment of amounts for calculation of excess business loss The amendments made by subsection (b) shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

Section 707(a)(2) is amended by striking Under regulations prescribed and inserting Except as provided.

The amendment made by this section shall apply to services performed, and property transferred, after the date of the enactment of this Act.

Nothing in this section, or the amendments made by this section, shall be construed to create any inference with respect to the proper treatment under section 707(a) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 with respect to payments from a partnership to a partner for services performed, or property transferred, on or before the date of the enactment of this Act.

if any person which is a member of such controlled group (other than such publicly held corporation) provides applicable employee remuneration to an individual who is a specified covered employee of such controlled group and the aggregate amount described in subparagraph (B)(ii) with respect to such specified covered employee exceeds $1,000,000— (I) paragraph (1) shall apply to such person with respect to such remuneration, and (II) paragraph (1) shall apply to such publicly held corporation and to each such related person by substituting the allocable limitation amount for $1,000,000.

the amount which bears the same ratio to $1,000,000 as— (i) the amount of applicable employee remuneration provided by such member with respect to such specified covered employee, bears to (ii) the aggregate amount of applicable employee remuneration provided by all such members with respect to such specified covered employee.

The amendment made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

There is hereby imposed on any remittance transfer a tax equal to 1 percent of the amount of such transfer.

shall be paid by the sender with respect to such transfer.

shall collect the amount of the tax imposed under subsection (a) with respect to such transfer from the sender and remit such tax quarterly to the Secretary

to the extent that such tax is not collected, such tax shall be paid by the remittance transfer provider.

shall apply only to any remittance transfer for which the sender provides cash, a money order, a cashier's check, or any other similar physical instrument (as determined by the Secretary)

Subsection (a) shall not apply to any remittance transfer for which the funds being transferred are— (1) withdrawn from an account held in or by a financial institution— (A) which is described in subparagraphs (A) through (H) of section 5312(a)(2) of title 31, United States Code, and (B) that is subject to the requirements under subchapter II of chapter 53 of such title, or (2) funded with a debit card or a credit card which is issued in the United States.

For purposes of section 7701(l), with respect to any multiple-party arrangements involving the sender, a remittance transfer shall be treated as a financing transaction.

The amendments made by this section shall apply to transfers made after December 31, 2025.

Any COVID–ERTC promoter which provides aid, assistance, or advice with respect to any COVID–ERTC document and which fails to comply with due diligence requirements imposed by the Secretary with respect to determining eligibility for, or the amount of, any credit or advance payment of a credit under section 3134 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, shall pay a penalty of $1,000 for each such failure.

Paragraph (1) shall not apply with respect to any COVID–ERTC document unless such document constitutes, or relates to, a return or claim for refund.

(A) such person charges or receives a fee for such aid, assistance, or advice which is based on the amount of the refund or credit with respect to such document and, with respect to such person's taxable year in which such person provided such assistance or the preceding taxable year, the aggregate of the gross receipts of such person for aid, assistance, and advice with respect to all COVID-ERTC documents exceeds 20 percent of the gross receipts of such person for such taxable year, or (B) with respect to such person's taxable year in which such person provided such assistance or the preceding taxable year— (i) the aggregate of the gross receipts of such person for aid, assistance, and advice with respect to all COVID–ERTC documents exceeds 50 percent of the gross receipts of such person for such taxable year, or (ii) both— (I) such aggregate gross receipts exceed 20 percent of the gross receipts of such person for such taxable year, and (II) the aggregate of the gross receipts of such person for aid, assistance, and advice with respect to all COVID–ERTC documents (determined after application of paragraph (3)) exceeds $500,000.

The term COVID–ERTC promoter shall not include a certified professional employer organization

all persons treated as a single employer under subsection (a) or (b) of section 52 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, or subsection (m) or (o) of section 414 of such Code, shall be treated as 1 person.

In the case of any taxable year of less than 12 months, a person shall be treated as a COVID-ERTC promoter if such person is described in paragraph (1) either with respect to such taxable year or by treating any reference to such taxable year as a reference to the calendar year in which such taxable year begins.

The provisions of this section shall apply to aid, assistance, and advice provided after the date of the enactment of this Act.

no credit under section 3134 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 shall be allowed, and no refund with respect to any such credit shall be made, after the date of the enactment of this Act, unless a claim for such credit or refund was filed by the taxpayer on or before January 31, 2024.

shall not expire before the date that is 6 years after the latest of— (A) the date on which the original return which includes the calendar quarter with respect to which such credit is determined is filed, (B) the date on which such return is treated as filed under section 6501(b)(2), or (C) the date on which the claim for credit or refund with respect to such credit is made.

the limitation on the time period for credit or refund of any amount attributable to a deduction for improperly claimed ERTC wages shall not expire before the time period for such assessment expires under paragraph (1).

Section 6676(a) is amended by striking income tax and inserting income or employment tax.

The amendment made by subsection (e) shall apply to assessments made after the date of the enactment of this Act. (4) Amendment to penalty for erroneous claim for refund or credit The amendment made by subsection (f) shall apply to claims for credit or refund after the date of the enactment of this Act.

No credit shall be allowed under subsection (a) to an individual unless the individual includes on the return of tax for the taxable year— (i) such individual's social security number, and (ii) in the case of a credit with respect to the qualified tuition and related expenses of an individual other than the taxpayer or the taxpayer's spouse, the name and social security number of such individual.

No American Opportunity Tax Credit shall be allowed under this section unless the taxpayer includes the employer identification number of any institution to which the taxpayer paid qualified tuition and related expenses taken into account under this section on the return of tax for the taxable year.

the term social security number shall have the meaning given such term in section 24(h)(7).

(b) Omission treated as mathematical or clerical error Section 6213(g)(2)(J) is amended by striking TIN and inserting social security number or employer identification number. (c) Effective date The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

there is hereby appropriated for the fiscal year ending September 30, 2026, $15,000,000, to remain available until September 30, 2026, for necessary expenses of the Department of the Treasury to deliver to Congress, within 90 days following the date of the enactment of this Act, a report on

(1) the cost of enhancing and establishing public-private partnerships which provide for free tax filing for up to 70 percent of all taxpayers calculated by adjusted gross income, and to replace any direct e-file programs run by the Internal Revenue Service; (2) taxpayer opinions and preferences regarding a taxpayer-funded, government-run service or a free service provided by the private sector; (3) assessment of the feasibility of a new approach, how to make the options consistent and simple for taxpayers across all participating providers, and how to provide features to address taxpayer needs; and (4) the cost (including options for differential coverage based on taxpayer adjusted gross income and return complexity) of developing and running a free direct e-file tax return system, including costs to build and administer each release.

The Secretary of Health and Human Services shall not, during the period beginning on the date of the enactment of this section and ending September 30, 2034, implement, administer, or enforce the amendments made by the provisions of the final rule published by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services on September 21, 2023, and titled Streamlining Medicaid; Medicare Savings Program Eligibility Determination and Enrollment (88 Fed. Reg. 65230) to the following sections of title 42, Code of Federal Regulations: (1) Section 406.21(c). (2) Section 435.4. (3) Section 435.601. (4) Section 435.911. (5) Section 435.952.

The Secretary of Health and Human Services shall not, during the period beginning on the date of the enactment of this section and ending September 30, 2034, implement, administer, or enforce the amendments made by the provisions of the final rule published by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services on April 2, 2024, and titled Medicaid Program; Streamlining the Medicaid, Children's Health Insurance Program, and Basic Health Program Application, Eligibility Determination, Enrollment, and Renewal Processes (89 Fed. Reg. 22780) to the following sections of title 42, Code of Federal Regulations

For the purposes of carrying out the provisions of this section and section 71102, there are appropriated, out of any monies in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to the Administrator of the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, $1,000,000 for fiscal year 2026, to remain available until expended.

beginning not later than January 1, 2027, in the case of 1 of the 50 States and the District of Columbia, for a process to regularly obtain address information for individuals enrolled under such plan (or a waiver of such plan)

(A) Mail returned to the State by the United States Postal Service with a forwarding address. (B) The National Change of Address Database maintained by the United States Postal Service. (C) A managed care entity (as defined in section 1932(a)(1)(B)) or prepaid inpatient health plan or prepaid ambulatory health plan (as such terms are defined in section 1903(m)(9)(D)) that has a contract under the State plan if the address information is provided to such entity or plan directly from, or verified by such entity or plan directly with, such individual. (D) Other data sources as identified by the State and approved by the Secretary.

Beginning January 1, 2027, each contract under a State plan with a managed care entity (as defined in section 1932(a)(1)(B)) or with a prepaid inpatient health plan or prepaid ambulatory health plan (as such terms are defined in section 1903(m)(9)(D)), shall provide that such entity or plan shall promptly transmit to the State any address information

(b) CHIP (1) In general Section 2107(e)(1) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1397gg(e)(1)) is amended

(H) Section 1902(a)(88) (relating to address information for enrollees and prevention of simultaneous enrollments).

beginning not later than October 1, 2029— (i) for the State to submit to the system established by the Secretary under subsection (uu), with respect to an individual enrolled or seeking to enroll under such plan, not less frequently than once each month and during each determination or redetermination of the eligibility of such individual

the social security number of such individual, if such individual has a social security number and is required to provide such number to enroll under such plan

identify whether such an individual resides in the State and disenroll an individual from the State plan of such State if such individual does not reside in such State (unless such individual meets such an exception as the Secretary may specify).

Not later than October 1, 2029, the Secretary shall establish a system to be utilized by the Secretary and States to prevent an individual from being simultaneously enrolled under the State plans (or waivers of such plans) of multiple States.

The Secretary shall establish such standards as determined necessary by the Secretary to limit and protect information submitted under such system and ensure the privacy of such information

(A) for fiscal year 2026, $10,000,000 for purposes of establishing the system and standards required under this subsection, to remain available until expended; and (B) for fiscal year 2029, $20,000,000 for purposes of maintaining such system, to remain available until expended.

this paragraph shall apply only in the case of the 50 States and the District of Columbia.

the eligibility verification requirements, beginning January 1, 2027, are as follows: (A) Quarterly screening to verify enrollee status The State shall, not less frequently than quarterly, review the Death Master File (as such term is defined in section 203(d) of the Bipartisan Budget Act of 2013) or a successor system

(ii) disenroll such individual from the State plan (or waiver of such plan) in accordance with subsection (a)(3); and (iii) discontinue any payments for medical assistance under this title made on behalf of such individual (other than payments for any items or services furnished to such individual prior to the death of such individual).

the State shall immediately re-enroll such individual under the State plan (or waiver of such plan), retroactive to the date of such disenrollment.

Nothing under this subsection shall be construed to preclude the ability of a State to use other electronic data sources to timely identify potentially deceased beneficiaries, so long as the State is also in compliance with the requirements of this subsection (and all other requirements under this title relating to Medicaid eligibility determination and redetermination).

Except as provided in paragraph (11), beginning not later than the first day of the first quarter that begins after December 31, 2026, or, at the option of the State under a waiver or demonstration project under section 1115 or the State plan, such earlier date as the State may specify

for 1 or more but not more than 3 (as specified by the State) consecutive months immediately preceding the month during which such individual applies

for 1 or more (as specified by the State) months, whether or not consecutive

(A) The individual works not less than 80 hours. (B) The individual completes not less than 80 hours of community service. (C) The individual participates in a work program for not less than 80 hours. (D) The individual is enrolled in an educational program at least half-time. (E) The individual engages in any combination of the activities described in subparagraphs (A) through (D), for a total of not less than 80 hours. (F) The individual has a monthly income that is not less than the applicable minimum wage requirement under section 6 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, multiplied by 80 hours. (G) The individual had an average monthly income over the preceding 6 months that is not less than the applicable minimum wage requirement under section 6 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 multiplied by 80 hours, and is a seasonal worker, as described in section 45R(d)(5)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986

(I) who is described in subsection (a)(10)(A)(i)(IX); (II) who— (aa) is an Indian or an Urban Indian

(bb) is a California Indian described in section 809(a) of such Act; or (cc) has otherwise been determined eligible as an Indian for the Indian Health Service under regulations promulgated by the Secretary

(III) who is the parent, guardian, caretaker relative, or family caregiver (as defined in section 2 of the RAISE Family Caregivers Act) of a dependent child 13 years of age and under or a disabled individual; (IV) who is a veteran with a disability rated as total under section 1155 of title 38, United States Code; (V) who is medically frail or otherwise has special medical needs

use reliable information available to the State

without requiring, where possible, the applicable individual to submit additional information.

a period of 30 calendar days, beginning on the date on which such notice of noncompliance is received by the individual

Beginning October 1, 2028, the State plan shall provide that in the case of a specified individual (as defined in paragraph (3)) who is eligible under the plan, no enrollment fee, premium, or similar charge will be imposed

provide for the imposition of such deductions, cost sharing, or similar charges determined appropriate by the State (in an amount greater than $0) with respect to certain care, items, or services

care, items, or services described in any of subparagraphs (B) through (J) of subsection (a)(2), or any primary care services, mental health care services, substance use disorder services, or services provided by a Federally qualified health center (as defined in 1905(l)(2)), certified community behavioral health clinic (as defined in section 1905(jj)(2)), or rural health clinic (as defined in 1905(l)(1))

beginning on October 1, 2026, except as provided in paragraphs (2) and (4), in no event shall payment be made to a State under this section for medical assistance furnished to an individual unless such individual is— (A) a resident of 1 of the 50 States, the District of Columbia, or a territory of the United States

(i) a citizen or national of the United States; (ii) an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence as an immigrant as defined by sections 101(a)(15) and 101(a)(20) of the Immigration and Nationality Act

(iii) an alien who has been granted the status of Cuban and Haitian entrant, as defined in section 501(e) of the Refugee Education Assistance Act of 1980 (Public Law 96–422); or (iv) an individual who lawfully resides in the United States in accordance with a Compact of Free Association referred to in section 402(b)(2)(G) of the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996.

(R) Section 1903(v)(5) (relating to payments for medical assistance furnished to aliens), except in relation to payments for services provided under section 2105(a)(1)(D)(ii).

$15,000,000 for fiscal year 2026, to remain available until expended.

an individual may be entitled to, or enrolled for, benefits under this title only if the individual is— (1) a citizen or national of the United States; (2) an alien who is lawfully admitted for permanent residence under the Immigration and Nationality Act; (3) an alien who has been granted the status of Cuban and Haitian entrant

(4) an individual who lawfully resides in the United States in accordance with a Compact of Free Association

In the case of an individual who is entitled to, or enrolled for, benefits under this title as of the date of the enactment of this section, subsection (a) shall apply beginning on the date that is 18 months after such date of enactment.

Not later than 1 year after the date of the enactment of this section, the Commissioner of Social Security shall complete a review

Such notification shall be made as soon as practicable after such identification and in a manner designed to ensure such individual's comprehension of such notification.

Section 36B(e)(1) is amended by inserting or, in the case of aliens who are lawfully present, are not eligible aliens after individuals who are not lawfully present.

such individual is, and is reasonably expected to be for the entire period of enrollment for which the credit under this section is being claimed— (i) an alien who is lawfully admitted for permanent residence under the Immigration and Nationality Act

(ii) an alien who has been granted the status of Cuban and Haitian entrant

(iii) an individual who lawfully resides in the United States in accordance with a Compact of Free Association

The amendments made by this subsection shall apply with respect to plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2027.

Section 5000A(d)(3) is amended by striking an alien lawfully present in the United States and inserting an eligible alien (within the meaning of section 36B(e)(2)).

The amendments made by this section (other than the amendments made by subsection (c)) shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2026.

using the items and quantities of food described in the report of the Department of Agriculture entitled Thrifty Food Plan, 2021, and each successor report updated pursuant to this subsection

the cost of the thrifty food plan shall be the basis for uniform allotments for all households, regardless of the actual composition of the household

The Secretary shall make household adjustments using the following ratios of household size as a percentage of the maximum 4-person allotment: (A) For a 1-person household, 30 percent. (B) For a 2-person household, 55 percent. (C) For a 3-person household, 79 percent. (D) For a 4-person household, 100 percent. (E) For a 5-person household, 119 percent. (F) For a 6-person household, 143 percent. (G) For a 7-person household, 158 percent. (H) For an 8-person household, 180 percent. (I) For a household of 9 persons or more, an additional 22 percent per person, which additional percentage shall not total more than 200 percent.

(3) Exceptions Paragraph (2) shall not apply to an individual if the individual is— (A) under 18, or over 65, years of age; (B) medically certified as physically or mentally unfit for employment; (C) a parent or other member of a household with responsibility for a dependent child under 14 years of age; (D) otherwise exempt under subsection (d)(2); (E) a pregnant woman; (F) an Indian or an Urban Indian (as such terms are defined in paragraphs (13) and (28) of section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act); or (G) a California Indian described in section 809(a) of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act.

Source snapshot updated 2026-09-19T23:26:15Z. 2025-07-04: Became Public Law No: 119-21.

2025-07-04: Signed by President.

2025-07-03: On motion that the House agree to the Senate amendment Agreed to by recorded vote: 218 - 214 (Roll no. 190). (text: CR H3059-3143)

2025-07-01: Passed Senate with an amendment by Yea-Nay Vote. 51 - 50. Record Vote Number: 372.

using the items and quantities of food described in the report of the Department of Agriculture entitled Thrifty Food Plan, 2021, and each successor report updated pursuant to this subsection

the cost of the thrifty food plan shall be the basis for uniform allotments for all households, regardless of the actual composition of the household

The Secretary shall make household adjustments using the following ratios of household size as a percentage of the maximum 4-person allotment: (A) For a 1-person household, 30 percent. (B) For a 2-person household, 55 percent. (C) For a 3-person household, 79 percent. (D) For a 4-person household, 100 percent. (E) For a 5-person household, 119 percent. (F) For a 6-person household, 143 percent. (G) For a 7-person household, 158 percent. (H) For an 8-person household, 180 percent. (I) For a household of 9 persons or more, an additional 22 percent per person, which additional percentage shall not total more than 200 percent.

make cost adjustments in the thrifty food plan for Hawaii and the urban and rural parts of Alaska to reflect the cost of food in Hawaii and urban and rural Alaska

make cost adjustments in the separate thrifty food plans for Guam and the Virgin Islands of the United States to reflect the cost of food in those States, but not to exceed the cost of food in the 50 States and the District of Columbia

on October 1, 2025, and on each October 1 thereafter, adjust the cost of the thrifty food plan to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers, published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor, for the most recent 12-month period ending in June.

Not earlier than October 1, 2027, the Secretary may re-evaluate the market baskets of the thrifty food plan based on current food prices, food composition data, consumption patterns, and dietary guidance. (B) Cost neutrality The Secretary shall not increase the cost of the thrifty food plan based on a re-evaluation under this paragraph.

(3) Exceptions Paragraph (2) shall not apply to an individual if the individual is— (A) under 18, or over 65, years of age; (B) medically certified as physically or mentally unfit for employment; (C) a parent or other member of a household with responsibility for a dependent child under 14 years of age; (D) otherwise exempt under subsection (d)(2); (E) a pregnant woman; (F) an Indian or an Urban Indian (as such terms are defined in paragraphs (13) and (28) of section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act); or (G) a California Indian described in section 809(a) of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act.

by striking clause (ii) and inserting the following: (ii) is in a noncontiguous State and has an unemployment rate that is at or above 1.5 times the national unemployment rate.

the term noncontiguous State means a State that is not 1 of the contiguous 48 States or the District of Columbia. (ii) Exclusions In this paragraph, the term noncontiguous State does not include Guam or the Virgin Islands of the United States.

the Secretary may exempt individuals in a noncontiguous State from compliance with the requirements of paragraph (2) if— (i) the State agency submits to the Secretary a request for that exemption, made in such form and at such time as the Secretary may require, and including the information described in subparagraph (C); and (ii) the Secretary determines that based on that request, the State agency is demonstrating a good faith effort to comply with the requirements of paragraph (2).

An exemption granted under subparagraph (B) shall expire not later than December 31, 2028, and may not be renewed beyond that date.

The Secretary may terminate an exemption granted under subparagraph (B) prior to the expiration date of that exemption if the Secretary determines that the State agency— (I) has failed to comply with the reporting requirements described in subparagraph (E); or (II) based on the information provided pursuant to subparagraph (E), failed to make continued good faith efforts toward compliance with the requirements of this subsection.

quarterly progress reports on the status of the State agency in achieving the milestones toward full compliance

The Secretary of Health and Human Services shall not, during the period beginning on the date of the enactment of this section and ending September 30, 2034, implement, administer, or enforce the amendments made by the provisions of the final rule published by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services on September 21, 2023, and titled Streamlining Medicaid; Medicare Savings Program Eligibility Determination and Enrollment (88 Fed. Reg. 65230)

For the purposes of carrying out the provisions of this section and section 71102, there are appropriated, out of any monies in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to the Administrator of the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, $1,000,000 for fiscal year 2026, to remain available until expended.

The Secretary of Health and Human Services shall not, during the period beginning on the date of the enactment of this section and ending September 30, 2034, implement, administer, or enforce the amendments made by the provisions of the final rule published by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services on April 2, 2024, and titled Medicaid Program; Streamlining the Medicaid, Children's Health Insurance Program, and Basic Health Program Application, Eligibility Determination, Enrollment, and Renewal Processes (89 Fed. Reg. 22780) to the following sections of title 42, Code of Federal Regulations

beginning not later than January 1, 2027, in the case of 1 of the 50 States and the District of Columbia, for a process to regularly obtain address information for individuals enrolled under such plan (or a waiver of such plan)

(A) Mail returned to the State by the United States Postal Service with a forwarding address. (B) The National Change of Address Database maintained by the United States Postal Service.

if the address information is provided to such entity or plan directly from, or verified by such entity or plan directly with, such individual. (D) Other data sources as identified by the State and approved by the Secretary.

Beginning January 1, 2027, each contract under a State plan with a managed care entity (as defined in section 1932(a)(1)(B)) or with a prepaid inpatient health plan or prepaid ambulatory health plan (as such terms are defined in section 1903(m)(9)(D)), shall provide that such entity or plan shall promptly transmit to the State any address information for an individual enrolled with such entity or plan that is provided to such entity or plan directly from, or verified by such entity or plan directly with, such individual.

(b) CHIP (1) In general Section 2107(e)(1) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1397gg(e)(1)) is amended

(H) Section 1902(a)(88) (relating to address information for enrollees and prevention of simultaneous enrollments).

beginning not later than October 1, 2029— (i) for the State to submit to the system established by the Secretary under subsection (uu), with respect to an individual enrolled or seeking to enroll under such plan, not less frequently than once each month and during each determination or redetermination of the eligibility of such individual

identify whether such an individual resides in the State and disenroll an individual from the State plan of such State if such individual does not reside in such State (unless such individual meets such an exception as the Secretary may specify).

Not later than October 1, 2029, the Secretary shall establish a system to be utilized by the Secretary and States to prevent an individual from being simultaneously enrolled under the State plans (or waivers of such plans) of multiple States.

not less than once each month, transmit information to a State

The Secretary shall establish such standards as determined necessary by the Secretary to limit and protect information submitted under such system and ensure the privacy of such information

(A) for fiscal year 2026, $10,000,000 for purposes of establishing the system and standards required under this subsection, to remain available until expended; and (B) for fiscal year 2029, $20,000,000 for purposes of maintaining such system, to remain available until expended.

this paragraph shall apply only in the case of the 50 States and the District of Columbia.

the eligibility verification requirements, beginning January 1, 2027, are as follows: (A) Quarterly screening to verify enrollee status The State shall, not less frequently than quarterly, review the Death Master File

disenroll such individual from the State plan (or waiver of such plan) in accordance with subsection (a)(3); and (iii) discontinue any payments for medical assistance under this title made on behalf of such individual (other than payments for any items or services furnished to such individual prior to the death of such individual).

the State shall immediately re-enroll such individual under the State plan (or waiver of such plan), retroactive to the date of such disenrollment.

Beginning January 1, 2028, as part of the enrollment (or reenrollment or revalidation of enrollment) of a provider or supplier under this title, and not less frequently than quarterly during the period that such provider or supplier is so enrolled, the State conducts a check of the Death Master File

by inserting for audits conducted by the Secretary, or, at the option of the Secretary, audits conducted by the State after exceeds 0.03

The amount waived under clause (i) for a fiscal year may not exceed an amount equal to the erroneous excess payments for medical assistance described in subparagraph (D)(i)(II) made for such fiscal year that exceed the allowable error rate of 0.03.

payments (other than payments described in subclause (I)) for items and services furnished to an individual who is not eligible for medical assistance under the State plan (or a waiver of such plan) with respect to such items and services, or payments where insufficient information is available to confirm eligibility.

The amendments made by subsection (a) shall apply beginning with respect to fiscal year 2030.

with respect to redeterminations of eligibility for medical assistance under a State plan (or waiver of such plan) scheduled on or after the first day of the first quarter that begins after December 31, 2026, a State shall make such a redetermination once every 6 months

(I) Individuals enrolled under subsection (a)(10)(A)(i)(VIII). (II) Individuals described in such subsection who are otherwise enrolled under a waiver of such plan that provides coverage that is equivalent to minimum essential coverage

The requirements described in clause (i) shall not apply to any individual described in subsection (xx)(9)(A)(ii)(II). (iii) State defined For purposes of this subparagraph, the term State means 1 of the 50 States or the District of Columbia.

(II) who— (aa) is an Indian or an Urban Indian (as such terms are defined in paragraphs (13) and (28) of section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act); (bb) is a California Indian described in section 809(a) of such Act; or (cc) has otherwise been determined eligible as an Indian for the Indian Health Service under regulations promulgated by the Secretary

Not later than 180 days after the date of enactment of this section

shall issue guidance relating to the implementation of the amendments made by this section.

$75,000,000 for fiscal year 2026, to remain available until expended.

by inserting , in the case of an individual’s home that is located on a lot that is zoned for agricultural use, after apply subparagraph (A)

A State may elect, without regard to the requirements of section 1902(a)(1) (relating to statewideness) and section 1902(a)(10)(B) (relating to comparability), to apply subparagraph (A), in the case of an individual’s home that is not described in clause (i), by substituting for the amount specified in such subparagraph, an amount that exceeds such amount, but does not exceed $1,000,000.

Section 1917(f) shall apply for purposes of determining the eligibility of an individual for medical assistance with respect to nursing facility services or other long-term care services.

The amendments made by subsection (a) shall apply beginning on January 1, 2028.

beginning on October 1, 2026, except as provided in paragraphs (2) and (4), in no event shall payment be made to a State under this section for medical assistance furnished to an individual unless such individual is— (A) a resident of 1 of the 50 States, the District of Columbia, or a territory of the United States

(i) a citizen or national of the United States; (ii) an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence as an immigrant as defined by sections 101(a)(15) and 101(a)(20) of the Immigration and Nationality Act

(iii) an alien who has been granted the status of Cuban and Haitian entrant, as defined in section 501(e) of the Refugee Education Assistance Act of 1980 (Public Law 96–422); or (iv) an individual who lawfully resides in the United States in accordance with a Compact of Free Association referred to in section 402(b)(2)(G) of the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996.

(R) Section 1903(v)(5) (relating to payments for medical assistance furnished to aliens), except in relation to payments for services provided under section 2105(a)(1)(D)(ii).

$15,000,000 for fiscal year 2026, to remain available until expended.

Notwithstanding subsection (y) and (z), beginning on October 1, 2026, the Federal medical assistance percentage for payments for care and services described in paragraph (2) of subsection 1903(v) furnished to an alien described in paragraph (1) of such subsection shall not exceed the Federal medical assistance percentage determined under subsection (b) for such State.

$1,000,000 for fiscal year 2026, to remain available until expended.

The Secretary of Health and Human Services shall not, during the period beginning on the date of the enactment of this section and ending September 30, 2034, implement, administer, or enforce the amendments made by the provisions of the final rule published by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services on May 10, 2024, and titled Medicare and Medicaid Programs; Minimum Staffing Standards for Long-Term Care Facilities and Medicaid Institutional Payment Transparency Reporting (89 Fed. Reg. 40876) to the following sections of part 483 of title 42, Code of Federal Regulations: (1) Section 483.5. (2) Section 483.35.

(A) is enrolled under paragraph (10)(A)(i)(VIII), such assistance will be made available to the individual for care and services included under the plan and furnished in or after the month before the month in which the individual made application

if such individual was (or upon application would have been) eligible for such assistance at the time such care and services were furnished; or (B) is not described in subparagraph (A), such assistance will be made available to the individual for care and services included under the plan and furnished in or after the second month before the month in which the individual made application

in the case that the State elects to provide child health or pregnancy-related assistance to an individual for any period prior to the month in which the individual made application for such assistance

such assistance is not made available to such individual for items and services included under the State child health plan (or waiver of such plan) that are furnished before the second month preceding the month in which such individual made application

based on an application made on or after the first day of the first quarter that begins after December 31, 2026.

$10,000,000 for fiscal year 2026, to remain available until expended.

No Federal funds that are considered direct spending and provided to carry out a State plan under title XIX of the Social Security Act or a waiver of such a plan shall be used to make payments to a prohibited entity for items and services furnished during the 1-year period beginning on the date of the enactment of this Act

an entity, including its affiliates, subsidiaries, successors, and clinics— (A) that, as of the first day of the first quarter beginning after the date of enactment of this Act— (i) is an organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 and exempt from tax under section 501(a) of such Code; (ii) is an essential community provider described in section 156.235 of title 45, Code of Federal Regulations (as in effect on the date of enactment of this Act), that is primarily engaged in family planning services, reproductive health, and related medical care

provides for abortions, other than an abortion— (I) if the pregnancy is the result of an act of rape or incest; or (II) in the case where a woman suffers from a physical disorder, physical injury, or physical illness, including a life-endangering physical condition caused by or arising from the pregnancy itself, that would, as certified by a physician, place the woman in danger of death unless an abortion is performed

the total amount of Federal and State expenditures under the Medicaid program under title XIX of the Social Security Act for medical assistance furnished in fiscal year 2023 made directly, or by a covered organization, to the entity or to any affiliates, subsidiaries, successors, or clinics of the entity, or made to the entity or to any affiliates, subsidiaries, successors, or clinics of the entity as part of a nationwide health care provider network, exceeded $800,000.

$1,000,000 for fiscal year 2026, to remain available until expended.

71114. Sunsetting increased FMAP incentive Section 1905(ii)(3) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1396d(ii)(3)) is amended

(B) begins to expend amounts for all such individuals prior to January 1, 2026.

for fiscal years beginning on or after October 1, 2026, the applicable percent determined under subparagraph (D) shall be substituted for 6 percent each place it appears

if, on the date of enactment of this subparagraph, the non-expansion State or unit of local government in such State has enacted a tax and imposes such tax on such class and the Secretary determines that the tax is within the hold harmless threshold as of that date, the applicable percent of net patient revenue attributable to such class that has been so determined

has not enacted or does not impose a tax with respect to such class, 0 percent

the lower of— (AA) the applicable percent of net patient revenue attributable to such class that has been so determined; and (BB) the applicable percent specified in clause (ii) for the fiscal year

(I) for fiscal year 2028, 5.5 percent; (II) for fiscal year 2029, 5 percent; (III) for fiscal year 2030, 4.5 percent; (IV) for fiscal year 2031, 4 percent; and (V) for fiscal year 2032 and each subsequent fiscal year, 3.5 percent.

In the case of a tax of an expansion State or unit of local government in such State in effect on the date of enactment of this clause, that applies to a class of health care items or services that is described in paragraph (3) or (4) of section 433.56(a) of title 42, Code of Federal Regulations (as in effect on May 1, 2025), and for which, on such date of enactment, is within the hold harmless threshold (as determined by the Secretary), the applicable percent of net patient revenue attributable to such class that has been so determined shall apply for a fiscal year instead of the applicable percent specified in clause (ii) for the fiscal year.

The amendments made by this section shall only apply with respect to a State that is 1 of the 50 States or the District of Columbia.

$20,000,000 for fiscal year 2026, to remain available until expended.

with respect to a payment described in such section made for a service furnished during a rating period beginning on or after the date of the enactment of this Act, the total payment rate for such service is limited to

in the case of a State that provides coverage to all individuals described in section 1902(a)(10)(A)(i)(VIII)

100 percent of the specified total published Medicare payment rate (or, in the absence of a specified total published Medicare payment rate, the payment rate under a Medicaid State plan (or under a waiver of such plan)); or (2) in the case of a State other than a State described in paragraph (1), 110 percent of the specified total published Medicare payment rate (or, in the absence of a specified total published Medicare payment rate, the payment rate under a Medicaid State plan (or under a waiver of such plan)).

for which written prior approval (or a good faith effort to receive such approval, as determined by the Secretary) was made before May 1, 2025, or a payment described in such section for a rural hospital (as defined in subsection (d)(2)) for which written prior approval (or a good faith effort to receive such approval, as determined by the Secretary) was made by the date of enactment of this Act, for the rating period occurring within 180 days of the date of the enactment of this Act, or a payment so described for such rating period for which a completed preprint was submitted to the Secretary prior to the date of enactment of this Act

beginning with the rating period on or after January 1, 2028, the total amount of such payment shall be reduced by 10 percentage points each year until the total payment rate for such service is equal to the rate for such service specified in subsection (a).

$7,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2026 through 2033 for purposes of carrying out this section, to remain available until expended.

a tax is not considered to be generally redistributive if any of the following conditions apply

the tax rate imposed on any taxpayer or tax rate group (as defined in paragraph (7)(J)) explicitly defined by its relatively lower volume or percentage of Medicaid taxable units (as defined in paragraph (7)(H)) is lower than the tax rate imposed on any other taxpayer or tax rate group explicitly defined by its relatively higher volume or percentage of Medicaid taxable units.

the tax rate imposed on any taxpayer or tax rate group (as so defined) based upon its Medicaid taxable units (as so defined) is higher than the tax rate imposed on any taxpayer or tax rate group based upon its non-Medicaid taxable unit

The tax excludes or imposes a lower tax rate on a taxpayer or tax rate group (as so defined) based on or defined by any description that results in the same effect as described in subclause (I) or (II)

The amendments made by this section shall only apply with respect to a State that is 1 of the 50 States or the District of Columbia.

shall take effect upon the date of enactment of this Act, subject to any applicable transition period determined appropriate by the Secretary of Health and Human Services, not to exceed 3 fiscal years.

Beginning January 1 2027, the Secretary may not approve an application for (or renewal or amendment of) an experimental, pilot, or demonstration project

unless the Chief Actuary for the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services certifies that such project, or, in the case of a renewal, the duration of the preceding waiver, is not expected to result in an increase in the amount of Federal expenditures compared to the amount that such expenditures would otherwise be in the absence of such project.

expenditures for the coverage of populations and services that the State could have otherwise provided through its Medicaid State plan or other authority under title XIX, including expenditures that could be made under such authority but for the provision of such services at a different site of service than authorized under such State plan or other authority, shall be considered expenditures in the absence of such a project.

the Secretary shall specify the methodology to be used with respect to the subsequent approval period for such project for purposes of taking the difference between such expenditures into account.

$5,000,000 for each of fiscal years 2026 and 2027, to remain available until expended.

Except as provided in paragraph (11), beginning not later than the first day of the first quarter that begins after December 31, 2026, or, at the option of the State under a waiver or demonstration project under section 1115 or the State plan, such earlier date as the State may specify

for 1 or more but not more than 3 (as specified by the State) consecutive months immediately preceding the month during which such individual applies

for 1 or more (as specified by the State) months, whether or not consecutive

during each such individual’s regularly scheduled redetermination of eligibility, except that a State may provide for such verifications more frequently.

The term applicable individual means an individual (other than a specified excluded individual (as defined in clause (ii)))— (I) who is eligible to enroll (or is enrolled) under the State plan under subsection (a)(10)(A)(i)(VIII); or (II) who— (aa) is otherwise eligible to enroll (or is enrolled) under a waiver of such plan that provides coverage that is equivalent to minimum essential coverage

has attained the age of 19 and is under 65 years of age, is not pregnant, is not entitled to, or enrolled for, benefits under part A of title XVIII, or enrolled for benefits under part B of title XVIII, and is not otherwise eligible to enroll under such plan.

(A) The individual works not less than 80 hours. (B) The individual completes not less than 80 hours of community service. (C) The individual participates in a work program for not less than 80 hours. (D) The individual is enrolled in an educational program at least half-time. (E) The individual engages in any combination of the activities described in subparagraphs (A) through (D), for a total of not less than 80 hours. (F) The individual has a monthly income that is not less than the applicable minimum wage requirement under section 6 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, multiplied by 80 hours. (G) The individual had an average monthly income over the preceding 6 months that is not less than the applicable minimum wage requirement under section 6 of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 multiplied by 80 hours, and is a seasonal worker, as described in section 45R(d)(5)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986

(I) who is described in subsection (a)(10)(A)(i)(IX); (II) who— (aa) is an Indian or an Urban Indian

(bb) is a California Indian described in section 809(a) of such Act; or (cc) has otherwise been determined eligible as an Indian for the Indian Health Service under regulations promulgated by the Secretary

(III) who is the parent, guardian, caretaker relative, or family caregiver (as defined in section 2 of the RAISE Family Caregivers Act) of a dependent child 13 years of age and under or a disabled individual; (IV) who is a veteran with a disability rated as total under section 1155 of title 38, United States Code; (V) who is medically frail or otherwise has special medical needs

(VI) who— (aa) is in compliance with any requirements imposed by the State pursuant to section 407; or (bb) is a member of a household that receives supplemental nutrition assistance program benefits under the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 and is not exempt from a work requirement under such Act; (VII) who is participating in a drug addiction or alcoholic treatment and rehabilitation program (as defined in section 3(h) of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008); (VIII) who is an inmate of a public institution; or (IX) who is pregnant or entitled to postpartum medical assistance under paragraph (5) or (16) of subsection (e).

for part or all of such month, the individual— (I) was a specified excluded individual

at any point during the 3-month period ending on the first day of such month, the individual was an inmate of a public institution.

The State plan (or waiver of such plan) may provide, in the case of an applicable individual who experiences a short-term hardship event during a month

such individual receives inpatient hospital services, nursing facility services, services in an intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities, inpatient psychiatric hospital services, or such other services of similar acuity

an emergency or disaster declared by the President

has an unemployment rate that is at or above the lesser of— (AA) 8 percent; or (BB) 1.5 times the national unemployment rate

such individual or their dependent must travel outside of their community for an extended period of time to receive medical services necessary to treat a serious or complex medical condition

use reliable information available to the State

without requiring, where possible, the applicable individual to submit additional information.

a period of 30 calendar days, beginning on the date on which such notice of noncompliance is received by the individual

if such individual is enrolled under the State plan (or a waiver of such plan) under this title, continue to provide such individual with medical assistance during such 30-calendar-day period

disenroll such individual from the plan (or waiver of such plan) not later than the end of the month following the month in which such 30-calendar-day period ends, provided that— (I) the State first determines whether, with respect to the individual, there is any other basis for eligibility for medical assistance under the State plan (or waiver of such plan) or for another insurance affordability program; and (II) the individual is provided written notice and granted an opportunity for a fair hearing

For purposes of section 36B(c)(2)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, an individual shall be deemed to be eligible for minimum essential coverage described in section 5000A(f)(1)(A)(ii) of such Code for a month if such individual would have been eligible for medical assistance under a State plan (or a waiver of such plan) under this title but for a failure to meet the requirement to demonstrate community engagement

Notwithstanding section 1115(a), the provisions of this subsection may not be waived.

the Secretary determines that based on such request, the State is demonstrating a good faith effort to comply

An exemption granted under subparagraph (A) shall expire not later than December 31, 2028, and may not be renewed beyond such date.

The Secretary may terminate an exemption granted under subparagraph (A) prior to the expiration date of such exemption

quarterly progress reports on the State's status in achieving the milestones toward full compliance

beginning not later than the date that precedes December 31, 2026 (or, if the State elects under paragraph (1) to specify an earlier date, such earlier date) by the number of months specified by the State under paragraph (1)(A) plus 3 months, and periodically thereafter, the State shall notify applicable individuals

unless the contractor has no direct or indirect financial relationship with any Medicaid managed care entity or other specified entity that is responsible for providing or arranging for coverage

Not later than June 1, 2026, the Secretary of Health and Human Services shall promulgate an interim final rule

as the number of applicable individuals (as defined in section 1902(xx) of the Social Security Act, as added by subsection (a)) residing in such State bears to the total number of such individuals residing in all States, as of March 31, 2025.

out of amounts appropriated under paragraph (3)(B), distribute an equal amount among such States.

(A) $100,000,000 for fiscal year 2026 for purposes of awarding grants under paragraph (1)(A), to remain available until expended; and (B) $100,000,000 for fiscal year 2026 for purposes of award grants under paragraph (1)(B), to remain available until expended.

$200,000,000 for fiscal year 2026, to remain available until expended.

Beginning October 1, 2028, the State plan shall provide that in the case of a specified individual (as defined in paragraph (3)) who is eligible under the plan, no enrollment fee, premium, or similar charge will be imposed

provide for the imposition of such deductions, cost sharing, or similar charges determined appropriate by the State (in an amount greater than $0) with respect to certain care, items, or services

care, items, or services described in any of subparagraphs (B) through (J) of subsection (a)(2), or any primary care services, mental health care services, substance use disorder services, or services provided by a Federally qualified health center (as defined in 1905(l)(2)), certified community behavioral health clinic (as defined in section 1905(jj)(2)), or rural health clinic (as defined in 1905(l)(1))

in no case may a deduction, cost sharing, or similar charge imposed under the State plan with respect to care or an item or service furnished to a specified individual exceed $35.

with respect to a prescription drug furnished to a specified individual exceed the limit that would be applicable under paragraph (2)(A)(i) or (2)(B) of section 1916A(c)

may not exceed 5 percent of the family income of the family involved, as applied on a quarterly or monthly basis (as specified by the State).

an individual who has a family income (as determined in accordance with section 1902(e)(14)) that exceeds the poverty line

(A) is enrolled under section 1902(a)(10)(A)(i)(VIII); or (B) is described in such subsection and otherwise enrolled under a waiver of the State plan that provides coverage that is equivalent to minimum essential coverage

a State may permit a provider participating under the State plan to require, as a condition for the provision of care, items, or services

the payment of any deductions, cost sharing, or similar charges authorized to be imposed

Nothing in this subparagraph shall be construed as preventing a provider from reducing or waiving the application of such deductions, cost sharing, or similar charges on a case-by-case basis.

the term State means 1 of the 50 States or the District of Columbia.

$15,000,000 for fiscal year 2026, to remain available until expended.

Beginning July 1, 2028, notwithstanding paragraph (1), the Secretary may approve a waiver that is standalone from any other waiver

home or community-based services (other than room and board (as described in paragraph (1))) approved by the Secretary which are provided pursuant to a written plan of care

an initial term of 3 years and, upon the request of the State, shall be extended for additional 5-year periods unless the Secretary determines that for the previous waiver period the requirements specified under this subsection (excluding those excepted under subparagraph (B)) have not been met.

will not result in a material increase of the average amount of time that individuals with respect to whom a determination described in paragraph (1) has been made will need to wait

The State establishes needs-based criteria, subject to the approval of the Secretary, regarding who will be eligible for home or community-based services under a waiver approved under this paragraph without requiring such individuals to have a determination described in paragraph (1)

will not exceed the State’s average per capita expenditure for medical assistance for individuals receiving institutional care under the State plan (or waiver of such plan)

The State agrees to provide to the Secretary, not less frequently than annually, data

No payments made to carry out this paragraph shall be used by a State to make payments to a third party on behalf of an individual practitioner for benefits such as health insurance, skills training, and other benefits customary for employees, in the case of a class of practitioners for which the program established under this title is the primary source of revenue.

for fiscal year 2026, $50,000,000 for purposes of carrying out the provisions of, and the amendments made by, this section, to remain available until expended

for fiscal year 2027, $100,000,000 for purposes of making payments to States, subject to paragraph (2), to support State systems to deliver home or community-based services

on the basis of the proportion of the population of the State that is receiving home or community-based services under section1915(c) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1396n(c)) (as amended by this section) or under section 1115 of such Act (42 U.S.C. 1315), as compared to all States.

an individual may be entitled to, or enrolled for, benefits under this title only if the individual is— (1) a citizen or national of the United States; (2) an alien who is lawfully admitted for permanent residence under the Immigration and Nationality Act; (3) an alien who has been granted the status of Cuban and Haitian entrant

(4) an individual who lawfully resides in the United States in accordance with a Compact of Free Association

In the case of an individual who is entitled to, or enrolled for, benefits under this title as of the date of the enactment of this section, subsection (a) shall apply beginning on the date that is 18 months after such date of enactment.

Not later than 1 year after the date of the enactment of this section, the Commissioner of Social Security shall complete a review

Such notification shall be made as soon as practicable after such identification and in a manner designed to ensure such individual's comprehension of such notification.

71202. Temporary payment increase under the medicare physician fee schedule to account for exceptional circumstances

(F) such services furnished on or after January 1, 2026, and before January 1, 2027, by 2.5 percent.

by striking only one rare disease or condition and inserting one or more rare diseases or conditions

In the case of a drug or biological product that, as of the date of the approval or licensure of such drug or biological product, is a drug or biological product described in paragraph (3)(A)

were instead a reference to the first day after the date of such approval for which such drug is not a drug described in paragraph (3)(A) or the first day after the date of such licensure for which such biological product is not a biological product described in paragraph (3)(A), respectively.

shall apply with respect to initial price applicability years (as defined in section 1191(b) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1320f(b))) beginning on or after January 1, 2028.

Section 36B(e)(1) is amended by inserting or, in the case of aliens who are lawfully present, are not eligible aliens after individuals who are not lawfully present.

such individual is, and is reasonably expected to be for the entire period of enrollment for which the credit under this section is being claimed— (i) an alien who is lawfully admitted for permanent residence under the Immigration and Nationality Act

(ii) an alien who has been granted the status of Cuban and Haitian entrant

(iii) an individual who lawfully resides in the United States in accordance with a Compact of Free Association

The amendments made by this subsection shall apply with respect to plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2027.

Section 5000A(d)(3) is amended by striking an alien lawfully present in the United States and inserting an eligible alien (within the meaning of section 36B(e)(2)).

The amendments made by this section (other than the amendments made by subsection (c)) shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2026.

71302. Disallowing premium tax credit during periods of medicaid ineligibility due to alien status (a) In general Section 36B(c)(1) is amended by striking subparagraph (B). (b) Effective date The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

The term coverage month shall not include

any month beginning before the Exchange verifies, using applicable enrollment information that shall be provided or verified by the applicant, such individual's eligibility— (i) to enroll in the plan through the Exchange, and (ii) for any advance payment

(i) Household income and family size. (ii) Whether the individual is an eligible alien. (iii) Any health coverage status or eligibility for coverage. (iv) Place of residence.

such month shall be treated as a coverage month if the Exchange verifies for such month

An individual shall not, solely by reason of failing to meet the requirements of this paragraph with respect to a month, be treated for such month as ineligible to enroll in a qualified health plan through an Exchange.

The Secretary may waive the application of subparagraph (A)

during a special enrollment period provided by the Exchange on the basis of a change in the family size of the individual.

any month for which the Exchange does not meet the requirements of section 155.305(f)(4)(iii) of title 45, Code of Federal Regulations

a process for pre-enrollment verification through which any applicant may, beginning not later than August 1, verify with the Exchange the applicant's household income and eligibility for enrollment in such plan for plan years beginning in the subsequent year.

shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2027.

Such term shall not include any plan enrolled in during a special enrollment period provided for by an Exchange— (I) on the basis of the relationship of the individual's expected household income to such a percentage of the poverty line (or such other amount) as is prescribed by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for purposes of such period, and (II) not in connection with the occurrence of an event or change in circumstances specified by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for such purposes.

shall apply with respect to plan years beginning after December 31, 2025.

71305. Eliminating limitation on recapture of advance payment of premium tax credit (a) In general Section 36B(f)(2) is amended by striking subparagraph (B).

The amendments made by this section shall apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2025.

A plan shall not fail to be treated as a high deductible health plan by reason of failing to have a deductible for telehealth and other remote care services.

shall apply to plan years beginning after December 31, 2024.

Bronze and catastrophic plans treated as high deductible health plans The term high deductible health plan shall include any plan which is— (i) available as individual coverage through an Exchange established under section 1311 or 1321 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, and (ii) described in subsection (d)(1)(A) or (e) of section 1302 of such Act.

shall apply to months beginning after December 31, 2025.

A direct primary care service arrangement shall not be treated as a health plan for purposes of subparagraph (A)(ii).

consisting solely of primary care services provided by primary care practitioners (as defined in section 1833(x)(2)(A) of the Social Security Act, determined without regard to clause (ii) thereof), if the sole compensation for such care is a fixed periodic fee.

such term shall not include any arrangement if the aggregate fees for all direct primary care service arrangements (determined without regard to this subclause) with respect to such individual for such month exceed $150 (twice such dollar amount in the case of an individual with any direct primary care service arrangement (as so determined) that covers more than one individual).

the term primary care services shall not include— (I) procedures that require the use of general anesthesia, (II) prescription drugs (other than vaccines), and (III) laboratory services not typically administered in an ambulatory primary care setting.

Direct primary care service arrangement fees treated as medical expenses Section 223(d)(2)(C) is amended by striking or at the end of clause (iii), by striking the period at the end of clause (iv) and inserting , or, and by adding at the end the following new clause: (v) any direct primary care service arrangement.

and in the case of taxable years beginning after 2026, (c)(1)(E)(ii)(II)

The amendments made by this section shall apply to months beginning after December 31, 2025.

There are appropriated, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to the Administrator of the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services

(i) $10,000,000,000 for fiscal year 2026; (ii) $10,000,000,000 for fiscal year 2027; (iii) $10,000,000,000 for fiscal year 2028; (iv) $10,000,000,000 for fiscal year 2029; and (v) $10,000,000,000 for fiscal year 2030.

Subject to paragraph (8) and notwithstanding any provision of this part or part B, for any period of instruction beginning on or after July 1, 2026, a graduate or professional student shall not be eligible to receive a Federal Direct PLUS Loan under this part.

Subject to paragraphs (7)(A) and (8), beginning on July 1, 2026, the maximum annual amount of Federal Direct Unsubsidized Stafford loans— (i) a graduate student, who is not a professional student, may borrow in any academic year or its equivalent shall be $20,500; and (ii) a professional student may borrow in any academic year or its equivalent shall be $50,000.

Subject to paragraph (8) and notwithstanding any provision of this part or part B, beginning on July 1, 2026, for each dependent student, the total maximum annual amount of Federal Direct PLUS loans that may be borrowed on behalf of that dependent student by all parents of that dependent student shall be $20,000.

the total maximum aggregate amount of Federal Direct PLUS loans that may be borrowed on behalf of that dependent student by all parents of that dependent student shall be $65,000, without regard to any amounts repaid, forgiven, canceled, or otherwise discharged on any such loan.

Paragraphs (3)(C), (4), (5), and (6) shall not apply, and paragraph (3)(A)(ii) shall apply as such paragraph was in effect for periods of instruction ending before June 30, 2026, during the expected time to credential described in subparagraph (B), with respect to an individual who, as of June 30, 2026— (i) is enrolled in a program of study at an institution of higher education; and (ii) has received a loan (or on whose behalf a loan was made) under this part for such program of study.

the expected time to credential of an individual shall be equal to the lesser of— (i) three academic years; or (ii) the period determined by calculating the difference between— (I) the program length for the program of study in which the individual is enrolled; and (II) the period of such program of study that such individual has completed

Beginning on July 1, 2026, the Secretary shall offer a borrower of a loan made under this part on or after such date (including such a borrower who also has a loan made under this part before such date) two plans for repayment

with a fixed monthly repayment amount paid over a fixed period of time

For the award year beginning on July 1, 2026, and each subsequent award year, the Secretary shall award grants (to be known as Workforce Pell Grants) to eligible students

a student shall meet the eligibility requirements for a Federal Pell Grant under this section, except that the student— (A) shall be enrolled, or accepted for enrollment, in an eligible program under section 481(b)(3)

there is appropriated to the Commissioner of U.S. Customs and Border Protection for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029, $46,550,000,000

(1) Construction, installation, or improvement of new or replacement primary, waterborne, and secondary barriers. (2) Access roads. (3) Barrier system attributes, including cameras, lights, sensors, and other detection technology. (4) Any work necessary to prepare the ground at or near the border to allow U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct its operations, including the construction and maintenance of the barrier system.

Source snapshot updated 2026-09-19T23:26:15Z.

2025-07-01: Passed Senate with an amendment by Yea-Nay Vote. 51 - 50. Record Vote Number: 372.

2025-07-03: On motion that the House agree to the Senate amendment Agreed to by recorded vote: 218 - 214 (Roll no. 190). (text: CR H3059-3143)

2025-07-04: Became Public Law No: 119-21.

2025-07-04: Signed by President.

using the items and quantities of food described in the report of the Department of Agriculture entitled Thrifty Food Plan, 2021, and each successor report updated pursuant to this subsection

the cost of the thrifty food plan shall be the basis for uniform allotments for all households, regardless of the actual composition of the household

The Secretary shall make household adjustments using the following ratios of household size as a percentage of the maximum 4-person allotment: (A) For a 1-person household, 30 percent. (B) For a 2-person household, 55 percent. (C) For a 3-person household, 79 percent. (D) For a 4-person household, 100 percent. (E) For a 5-person household, 119 percent. (F) For a 6-person household, 143 percent. (G) For a 7-person household, 158 percent. (H) For an 8-person household, 180 percent. (I) For a household of 9 persons or more, an additional 22 percent per person, which additional percentage shall not total more than 200 percent.

make cost adjustments in the thrifty food plan for Hawaii and the urban and rural parts of Alaska to reflect the cost of food in Hawaii and urban and rural Alaska

make cost adjustments in the separate thrifty food plans for Guam and the Virgin Islands of the United States to reflect the cost of food in those States, but not to exceed the cost of food in the 50 States and the District of Columbia

on October 1, 2025, and on each October 1 thereafter, adjust the cost of the thrifty food plan to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers, published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor, for the most recent 12-month period ending in June.

Not earlier than October 1, 2027, the Secretary may re-evaluate the market baskets of the thrifty food plan based on current food prices, food composition data, consumption patterns, and dietary guidance. (B) Cost neutrality The Secretary shall not increase the cost of the thrifty food plan based on a re-evaluation under this paragraph.

Paragraph (2) shall not apply to an individual if the individual is— (A) under 18, or over 65, years of age; (B) medically certified as physically or mentally unfit for employment; (C) a parent or other member of a household with responsibility for a dependent child under 14 years of age; (D) otherwise exempt under subsection (d)(2); (E) a pregnant woman; (F) an Indian or an Urban Indian (as such terms are defined in paragraphs (13) and (28) of section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act); or (G) a California Indian described in section 809(a) of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act.

is in a noncontiguous State and has an unemployment rate that is at or above 1.5 times the national unemployment rate.

The term noncontiguous State does not include Guam or the Virgin Islands of the United States.

the term noncontiguous State means a State that is not 1 of the contiguous 48 States or the District of Columbia. (ii) Exclusions In this paragraph, the term noncontiguous State does not include Guam or the Virgin Islands of the United States.

the Secretary may exempt individuals in a noncontiguous State from compliance with the requirements of paragraph (2) if— (i) the State agency submits to the Secretary a request for that exemption

the Secretary determines that based on that request, the State agency is demonstrating a good faith effort to comply with the requirements of paragraph (2).

An exemption granted under subparagraph (B) shall expire not later than December 31, 2028, and may not be renewed beyond that date.

The Secretary may terminate an exemption granted under subparagraph (B) prior to the expiration date of that exemption if the Secretary determines that the State agency— (I) has failed to comply with the reporting requirements described in subparagraph (E); or (II) based on the information provided pursuant to subparagraph (E), failed to make continued good faith efforts toward compliance with the requirements of this subsection.

quarterly progress reports on the status of the State agency in achieving the milestones toward full compliance

A plan shall not fail to be treated as a high deductible health plan by reason of failing to have a deductible for telehealth and other remote care services.

Clause (ii) of section 223(c)(1)(B) is amended by striking (in the case of months or plan years to which paragraph (2)(E) applies).

The amendments made by this section shall apply to plan years beginning after December 31, 2024.

Bronze and catastrophic plans treated as high deductible health plans The term high deductible health plan shall include any plan which is— (i) available as individual coverage through an Exchange established under section 1311 or 1321 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, and (ii) described in subsection (d)(1)(A) or (e) of section 1302 of such Act.

The amendment made by this section shall apply to months beginning after December 31, 2025.

A direct primary care service arrangement shall not be treated as a health plan for purposes of subparagraph (A)(ii).

consisting solely of primary care services provided by primary care practitioners (as defined in section 1833(x)(2)(A) of the Social Security Act, determined without regard to clause (ii) thereof), if the sole compensation for such care is a fixed periodic fee.

such term shall not include any arrangement if the aggregate fees for all direct primary care service arrangements (determined without regard to this subclause) with respect to such individual for such month exceed $150 (twice such dollar amount in the case of an individual with any direct primary care service arrangement (as so determined) that covers more than one individual).

the term primary care services shall not include— (I) procedures that require the use of general anesthesia, (II) prescription drugs (other than vaccines), and (III) laboratory services not typically administered in an ambulatory primary care setting.

Direct primary care service arrangement fees treated as medical expenses Section 223(d)(2)(C) is amended by striking or at the end of clause (iii), by striking the period at the end of clause (iv) and inserting , or, and by adding at the end the following new clause: (v) any direct primary care service arrangement.

and in the case of taxable years beginning after 2026, (c)(1)(E)(ii)(II)

The amendments made by this section shall apply to months beginning after December 31, 2025.

There are appropriated, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to the Administrator of the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services

(i) $10,000,000,000 for fiscal year 2026; (ii) $10,000,000,000 for fiscal year 2027; (iii) $10,000,000,000 for fiscal year 2028; (iv) $10,000,000,000 for fiscal year 2029; and (v) $10,000,000,000 for fiscal year 2030.

an application submission period to be specified by the Administrator (but that ends not later than December 31, 2025)

Not later than December 31, 2025, the Administrator shall approve or deny all applications submitted for an allotment under this subsection.

the State shall be eligible for an allotment under this subsection for each of fiscal years 2026 through 2030, except as provided in paragraph (1)(B)(iv).

Only the 50 States shall be eligible for an allotment under this subsection

shall not be required to provide any matching funds as a condition for receiving payments from the allotment.

a certification that none of the amounts provided under this subsection shall be used by the State for an expenditure that is attributable to an intergovernmental transfer, certified public expenditure, or any other expenditure to finance the non-Federal share of expenditures required under any provision of law

(i) 50 percent of the amounts appropriated for each such fiscal year equally among all States with an approved application under this subsection; and (ii) 50 percent of the amounts appropriated for each such fiscal year among all such States in an amount to be determined by the Administrator in accordance with subparagraph (C).

ensure that not less than 1/4 of the States with an approved application under this subsection for a fiscal year are allotted funds from amounts that are to be allotted under clause (ii)

(I) the percentage of the State population that is located in a rural census tract of a metropolitan statistical area

(II) the proportion of rural health facilities (as defined in subparagraph (D)) in the State relative to the number of rural health facilities nationwide; (III) the situation of hospitals in the State, as described in section 1902(a)(13)(A)(iv); and (IV) any other factors that the Administrator determines appropriate.

(i) a plan for the State to use its allotment to carry out 3 or more of the activities described in paragraph (6); and (ii) annual reports on the use of allotments

Amounts allotted to a State under this subsection shall be used for 3 or more of the following health-related activities:

Not more than 10 percent of the amount allotted to a State for a fiscal year may be used by the State for administrative expenses.

Recruiting and retaining clinical workforce talent to rural areas, with commitments to serve rural communities for a minimum of 5 years.

(A) Promoting evidence-based, measurable interventions to improve prevention and chronic disease management. (B) Providing payments to health care providers for the provision of health care items or services, as specified by the Administrator.

(C) Promoting consumer-facing, technology-driven solutions for the prevention and management of chronic diseases.

(D) Providing training and technical assistance for the development and adoption of technology-enabled solutions that improve care delivery in rural hospitals, including remote monitoring, robotics, artificial intelligence, and other advanced technologies. (E) Recruiting and retaining clinical workforce talent to rural areas, with commitments to serve rural communities for a minimum of 5 years. (F) Providing technical assistance, software, and hardware for significant information technology advances designed to improve efficiency, enhance cybersecurity capability development, and improve patient health outcomes.

(G) Assisting rural communities to right size their health care delivery systems by identifying needed preventative, ambulatory, pre-hospital, emergency, acute inpatient care, outpatient care, and post-acute care service lines. (H) Supporting access to opioid use disorder treatment services (as defined in section 1861(jjj)(1)), other substance use disorder treatment services, and mental health services. (I) Developing projects that support innovative models of care that include value-based care arrangements and alternative payment models, as appropriate. (J) Additional uses designed to promote sustainable access to high quality rural health care services, as determined by the Administrator.

Amounts allotted to a State under this subsection for a year shall be available for expenditure by the State through the end of the fiscal year following the fiscal year in which such amounts are allotted.

Amounts redistributed to a State under clause (ii) with respect to a fiscal year shall be available for expenditure by the State through the end of the fiscal year following the fiscal year in which such amounts are redistributed (except in the case of amounts redistributed in fiscal year 2032 which shall only be available for expenditure through September 30, 2032).

Any amounts appropriated under subparagraph (A) that are unexpended or unobligated as of October 1, 2032, shall be returned to the Treasury of the United States.

If the Administrator determines that a State is not using amounts allotted or redistributed to the State under this subsection in a manner consistent with the description provided by the State in its application approved under paragraph (2), the Administrator may withhold payments to, or reduce payments to, or recover previous payments from, the State

There shall be no administrative or judicial review under section 1116 or otherwise of amounts allotted or redistributed to States under this subsection, payments to States withheld or reduced under this subsection, or previous payments recovered from States under this subsection.

shall implement this section, including the amendments made by this section, by program instruction or other forms of program guidance.

$200,000,000 for fiscal year 2025, to remain available until expended.

Section 2105 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1397ee) is amended by adding at the end the following new subsection:

(7) Exemptions Paragraphs (2), (3), (5), (6), (8), (10), (11), and (12) of subsection (c) do not apply to payments under this subsection.

The limitation under section 3101(b) of title 31, United States Code, as most recently increased by section 401(b) of Public Law 118–5 (31 U.S.C. 3101 note), is increased by $5,000,000,000,000.

No Federal funds may be used— (A) to make payments of unemployment compensation benefits under an unemployment compensation program of the United States in a year to an individual whose wages during the individual's base period are equal to or exceed $1,000,000; or (B) for any administrative costs associated with making payments described in subparagraph (A).

Any application for unemployment compensation under an unemployment compensation program of the United States shall include a form or procedure for an individual applicant to certify that such individual's wages during the individual's base period do not equal or exceed $1,000,000.

shall utilize available systems to verify wage eligibility by assessing claimant income to the degree possible.

shall require individuals who have received amounts of unemployment compensation under such a program to which they were not entitled to repay such amounts.

The prohibition under paragraph (1) shall apply to weeks of unemployment beginning on or after the date of the enactment of this Act.

(1) unemployment compensation for Federal civilian employees under subchapter I of chapter 85 of title 5, United States Code; (2) unemployment compensation for ex-servicemembers under subchapter II of chapter 85 of title 5, United States Code; (3) extended benefits under the Federal-State Extended Unemployment Compensation Act of 1970 (26 U.S.C. 3304 note); (4) any Federal temporary extension of unemployment compensation; (5) any Federal program that increases the weekly amount of unemployment compensation payable to individuals; and (6) any other Federal program providing for the payment of unemployment compensation, as determined by the Secretary of Labor.

80001. Exemption of certain assets

(B) a family farm on which the family resides; (C) a small business with not more than 100 full-time or full-time equivalent employees (or any part of such a small business) that is owned and controlled by the family; or (D) a commercial fishing business and related expenses, including fishing vessels and permits owned and controlled by the family.

The amendments made by subsection (a) shall take effect on July 1, 2026, and shall apply with respect to award year 2026–2027 and each subsequent award year

Subject to paragraph (8) and notwithstanding any provision of this part or part B, for any period of instruction beginning on or after July 1, 2026, a graduate or professional student shall not be eligible to receive a Federal Direct PLUS Loan under this part.

Subject to paragraphs (7)(A) and (8), beginning on July 1, 2026, the maximum annual amount of Federal Direct Unsubsidized Stafford loans— (i) a graduate student, who is not a professional student, may borrow in any academic year or its equivalent shall be $20,500; and (ii) a professional student may borrow in any academic year or its equivalent shall be $50,000.

Subject to paragraphs (6), (7)(A), and (8), beginning on July 1, 2026, the maximum aggregate amount of Federal Direct Unsubsidized Stafford loans, in addition to the amount borrowed for undergraduate education

(i) a graduate student— (I) who is not (and has not been) a professional student, may borrow for programs of study described in subparagraph (C)(i) shall be $100,000; or (II) who is (or has been) a professional student, may borrow for programs of study described in subparagraph (C)(i) shall be an amount equal to— (aa) $200,000; minus (bb) the amount such student borrowed for programs of study described in subparagraph (C)(ii); and (ii) a professional student— (I) who is not (and has not been) a graduate student, may borrow for programs of study described in subparagraph (C)(ii) shall be $200,000; or (II) who is (or has been) a graduate student, may borrow for programs of study described in subparagraph (C)(ii) shall be an amount equal to— (aa) $200,000; minus (bb) the amount such student borrowed for programs of study described in subparagraph (C)(i).

Subject to paragraph (8) and notwithstanding any provision of this part or part B, beginning on July 1, 2026, for each dependent student, the total maximum annual amount of Federal Direct PLUS loans that may be borrowed on behalf of that dependent student by all parents of that dependent student shall be $20,000.

the total maximum aggregate amount of Federal Direct PLUS loans that may be borrowed on behalf of that dependent student by all parents of that dependent student shall be $65,000, without regard to any amounts repaid, forgiven, canceled, or otherwise discharged on any such loan.

Subject to paragraph (8) and notwithstanding any provision of this part or part B, beginning on July 1, 2026, the maximum aggregate amount of loans made, insured, or guaranteed under this title that a student may borrow (other than a Federal Direct PLUS loan, or loan under section 428B, made to the student as a parent borrower on behalf of a dependent student) shall be $257,500, without regard to any amounts repaid, forgiven, canceled, or otherwise discharged on any such loan.

the amount of a loan that student may borrow for an academic year or its equivalent shall be reduced in direct proportion to the degree to which that student is not so enrolled on a full-time basis, rounded to the nearest whole percentage point

beginning on July 1, 2026, an institution of higher education (at the discretion of a financial aid administrator at the institution) may limit the total amount of loans made under this part for a program of study for an academic year that a student may borrow, and that a parent may borrow on behalf of such student, as long as any such limit is applied consistently to all students enrolled in such program of study.

Paragraphs (3)(C), (4), (5), and (6) shall not apply, and paragraph (3)(A)(ii) shall apply as such paragraph was in effect for periods of instruction ending before June 30, 2026, during the expected time to credential described in subparagraph (B), with respect to an individual who, as of June 30, 2026— (i) is enrolled in a program of study at an institution of higher education; and (ii) has received a loan (or on whose behalf a loan was made) under this part for such program of study.

the expected time to credential of an individual shall be equal to the lesser of— (i) three academic years; or (ii) the period determined by calculating the difference between— (I) the program length for the program of study in which the individual is enrolled; and (II) the period of such program of study that such individual has completed

before July 1, 2028, each borrower who has one or more loans that are in a repayment status in accordance with, or an administrative forbearance associated with, an income contingent repayment plan authorized under section 455(e)

(A) The Repayment Assistance Plan under section 455(q) of the Higher Education Act of 1965. (B) The income-based repayment plan under section 493C of the Higher Education Act of 1965. (C) Any other repayment plan as authorized under section 455(d)(1) of the Higher Education Act of 1965.

Beginning on July 1, 2028, a borrower described in paragraph (1) shall begin repaying the covered income contingent loans of the borrower in accordance with the repayment plan selected under paragraph (1), unless the borrower chooses to begin repaying in accordance with the repayment plan selected under paragraph (1) before such date.

In the case of a borrower described in paragraph (1) who fails to select a repayment plan

(i) the Repayment Assistance Plan under section 455(q) of the Higher Education Act of 1965 with respect to loans that are eligible for the Repayment Assistance Plan under such subsection; or (ii) the income-based repayment plan under section 493C of such Act, with respect to loans that are not eligible for the Repayment Assistance Plan; and (B) require the borrower to begin repaying covered income contingent loans according to the plans under subparagraph (A) on July 1, 2028.

Subsection (e) of section 455 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1087e(e)) is repealed.

The amendments made by this subsection shall take effect on July 1, 2028.

Beginning on July 1, 2026, the Secretary shall offer a borrower of a loan made under this part on or after such date (including such a borrower who also has a loan made under this part before such date) two plans for repayment

with a fixed monthly repayment amount paid over a fixed period of time

based on the total outstanding principal of all loans of the borrower made under this part before, on, or after July 1, 2026, at the time the borrower is entering repayment under such plan

(aa) for a borrower with total outstanding principal of less than $25,000, a period of 10 years; (bb) for a borrower with total outstanding principal of not less than $25,000 and less than $50,000, a period of 15 years; (cc) for a borrower with total outstanding principal of not less than $50,000 and less than $100,000, a period of 20 years; and (dd) for a borrower with total outstanding principal of $100,000 or more, a period of 25 years; or (ii) the income-based Repayment Assistance Plan under subsection (q).

If a borrower of a loan made under this part on or after July 1, 2026, does not select a repayment plan described in subparagraph (A), the Secretary shall provide the borrower with the standard repayment plan

the Secretary shall require a borrower who has received an excepted loan made on or after such date (including such a borrower who also has an excepted loan made before such date) to repay each excepted loan, including principal and interest on those excepted loans, under the standard repayment plan

the term excepted loan means a loan with an outstanding balance that is— (I) a Federal Direct PLUS Loan that is made on behalf of a dependent student; or (II) a Federal Direct Consolidation Loan, if the proceeds of such loan were used to discharge the liability on— (aa) an excepted PLUS loan, as defined in section 493C(a)(1); or (bb) an excepted consolidation loan

A borrower is required to pay each outstanding loan of the borrower made under this part under the same selected repayment plan, except that a borrower who selects the Repayment Assistance Plan and also has an excepted loan that is not eligible for repayment under such Repayment Assistance Plan shall repay the excepted loan separately from other loans under this part obtained by the borrower.

A borrower may change the borrower’s selection of— (i) the standard repayment plan under subparagraph (A)(i), or the Secretary’s selection of such plan for the borrower under subparagraph (B), as the case may be, to the Repayment Assistance Plan under subparagraph (A)(ii) at any time; and (ii) the Repayment Assistance Plan under subparagraph (A)(ii) to the standard repayment plan under subparagraph (A)(i) at any time.

The borrower shall be entitled to accelerate, without penalty, repayment on such loans.

A Federal Direct Consolidation Loan offered to a borrower under this part on or after July 1, 2026, may only be repaid pursuant to a repayment plan described in clause (i) or (ii) of subsection (d)(7)(A) of this section, as applicable

beginning on July 1, 2026, the Secretary shall carry out an income-based repayment plan (to be known as the Repayment Assistance Plan)

(I) the applicable base payment of the borrower, divided by 12; minus (II) $50 for each dependent of the borrower (which, in the case of a married borrower filing a separate Federal income tax return, shall include only each dependent that the borrower claims on that return).

In the case of a borrower with an applicable monthly payment amount calculated under clause (i) that is less than $10, the applicable monthly payment of the borrower shall be $10.

(I) not more than $10,000, is $120; (II) more than $10,000 and not more than $20,000, is 1 percent of such adjusted gross income; (III) more than $20,000 and not more than $30,000, is 2 percent of such adjusted gross income; (IV) more than $30,000 and not more than $40,000, is 3 percent of such adjusted gross income; (V) more than $40,000 and not more than $50,000, is 4 percent of such adjusted gross income; (VI) more than $50,000 and not more than $60,000, is 5 percent of such adjusted gross income; (VII) more than $60,000 and not more than $70,000, is 6 percent of such adjusted gross income; (VIII) more than $70,000 and not more than $80,000, is 7 percent of such adjusted gross income; (IX) more than $80,000 and not more than $90,000, is 8 percent of such adjusted gross income; (X) more than $90,000 and not more than $100,000, is 9 percent of such adjusted gross income; and (XI) more than $100,000, is 10 percent of such adjusted gross income.

in the case of a married borrower who files a separate Federal income tax return, the term does not include the adjusted gross income of the borrower’s spouse.

In the case of a borrower whose total outstanding balance of principal and interest on all of the loans of the borrower that are repaid pursuant to the Repayment Assistance Plan is less than the applicable monthly payment calculated pursuant to clause (i) or (ii), as applicable, then the applicable monthly payment of the borrower shall be the total outstanding balance of principal and interest on all such loans.

for each month for which such a borrower makes an on-time applicable monthly payment required under paragraph (1)(A) and such monthly payment is insufficient to pay the total amount of interest that accrues for the month on all loans of the borrower repaid pursuant to the Repayment Assistance Plan under this subsection, the amount of interest accrued and not paid for the month shall not be charged to the borrower.

With respect to a borrower of a loan made under this part and not in a period of deferment or forbearance, for each month for which a borrower makes an on-time applicable monthly payment required under paragraph (1)(A) and such monthly payment reduces the total outstanding principal balance of all loans of the borrower repaid pursuant to the Repayment Assistance Plan under this subsection by less than $50

(i) the amount that is the lesser of— (I) $50; or (II) the total amount paid by the borrower for such month pursuant to paragraph (1)(A); minus (ii) the total amount paid by the borrower for such month pursuant to paragraph (1)(A) that is applied to such total outstanding principal balance.

The Secretary shall cancel any outstanding balance of principal and interest due on a loan made under this part to a borrower— (i) who, for any period of time, participated in the Repayment Assistance Plan under this subsection; (ii) whose most recent payment for such loan prior to the loan cancellation under this subparagraph was made under such Repayment Assistance Plan; and (iii) who has made 360 qualifying monthly payments on such loan.

A monthly payment under section 493C of not less than the monthly payment required under such section, including a monthly payment equal to the minimum payment amount permitted under such section.

A month when the borrower did not make a payment because the borrower was in deferment under subsection (f)(2)(B) or due to an economic hardship described in subsection (f)(2)(D).

A month that ended before the date of enactment of this subsection when the borrower did not make a payment because the borrower was in a period of deferment or forbearance described in section 685.209(k)(4)(iv) of title 34, Code of Federal Regulations

by striking that enables borrowers who have a partial financial hardship to make a lower monthly payment

is amended by striking who has a partial financial hardship.

The Secretary shall establish procedures for annually determining, in accordance with paragraph (2), the borrower’s eligibility for income-based repayment, including the verification of a borrower’s annual income

use return information disclosed under section 6103(l)(13) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, pursuant to approval provided under section 494, to determine the repayment obligation of the borrower without further action by the borrower

allow the borrower (or the spouse of the borrower), at any time, to opt out of disclosure under such section 6103(l)(13) and instead provide such information as the Secretary may require

provide the borrower with an opportunity to update the return information so disclosed before the determination of the repayment obligation of the borrower.

for whom adjusted gross income is unavailable or does not reasonably reflect the borrower's current income, shall provide to the Secretary other documentation of income satisfactory to the Secretary

who does not comply with such requirement, the applicable monthly payment of the borrower shall be— (I) the sum of the monthly payment amounts the borrower would have paid for each of the borrower’s loans made under this part under a standard repayment plan with a fixed monthly repayment amount, paid over a period of 10 years, based on the outstanding principal due on such loan when such loan entered repayment; and (II) determined pursuant to this clause until the date on which the borrower provides such information to the Secretary.

The amendments made by this subsection shall take effect on the date of enactment of this title, and shall apply with respect to any borrower who is in repayment before, on, or after the date of enactment of this title.

The term applicable amount means 15 percent of the result obtained by calculating, on at least an annual basis, the amount by which— (A) the borrower's, and the borrower's spouse's (if applicable), adjusted gross income; exceeds (B) 150 percent of the poverty line applicable to the borrower's family size

a borrower of any loan made, insured, or guaranteed under part B or D (other than an excepted PLUS loan or excepted consolidation loan), may elect to have the borrower’s aggregate monthly payment for all such loans not exceed the applicable amount divided by 12

if the monthly payment amount calculated under this section for all loans made to the borrower under part B or D (other than an excepted PLUS loan or excepted consolidation loan) exceeds the monthly amount calculated under section 428(b)(9)(A)(i) or 455(d)(1)(A), based on a 10-year repayment period, when the borrower first made the election described in this subsection (referred to in this paragraph as the standard monthly repayment amount), or if the borrower no longer wishes to continue the election under this subsection, then— (A) the maximum monthly payment required to be paid for all loans made to the borrower under part B or D (other than an excepted PLUS loan or excepted consolidation loan) shall be the standard monthly repayment amount; and (B) the amount of time the borrower is permitted to repay such loans may exceed 10 years;

Special terms for new borrowers on and after July 1, 2014 Section 493C(e) of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1098e(e)) is amended— (i) in the subsection heading, by inserting and before July 1, 2026 after After July 1, 2014 ; and (ii) by inserting and before July 1, 2026 after after July 1, 2014.

The term excepted consolidation loan does not include a Federal Direct Consolidation Loan described in subparagraph (A) that, on any date during the period beginning on the date of enactment of this subparagraph and ending on June 30, 2028, was being repaid— (i) pursuant to the Income Contingent Repayment (ICR) plan in accordance with section 685.209(b) of title 34, Code of Federal Regulations (as in effect on June 30, 2023); or (ii) pursuant to another income driven repayment plan.

Sunset of unemployment and economic hardship deferments A borrower who receives a loan made under this part on or after July 1, 2027, shall not be eligible to defer such loan under subparagraph (B) or (D) of paragraph (2).

A borrower who receives a loan made under this part on or after July 1, 2027, may only be eligible for a forbearance on such loan pursuant to section 428(c)(3)(B) that does not exceed 9 months during any 24-month period.

Section 428F(a)(5) of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1078–6(a)(5)) is amended by striking one time and inserting two times.

Section 464(h)(1)(D) of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1087dd(h)(1)(D)) is amended by striking once and inserting twice.

The amendments made by this subsection shall take effect beginning on July 1, 2027, and shall apply with respect to any loan made, insured, or guaranteed under title IV

With respect to a borrower who has 1 or more loans made under part D on or after July 1, 2027 that are described in subparagraph (A), the total monthly payment of the borrower for all such loans shall not be less than $10.

82004. Public service loan forgiveness Section 455(m)(1)(A) of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1087e(m)(1)(A)) is amended

(v) on-time payments under the Repayment Assistance Plan under subsection (q)

$1,000,000,000 to be obligated for administrative costs under this part and part B, including the costs of servicing the direct student loan programs under this part, which shall remain available until expended.

in the case of a dependent student, for the second tax year preceding the academic year— (I) the adjusted gross income (as defined in section 62 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986) of the student’s parents; plus (II) for Federal Pell Grant determinations made for academic years beginning on or after July 1, 2026, the foreign income (as described in section 480(b)(5)) of the student’s parents

in the case of an independent student, for the second tax year preceding the academic year— (I) the adjusted gross income (as defined in section 62 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986) of the student (and the student’s spouse, if applicable); plus (II) for Federal Pell Grant determinations made for academic years beginning on or after July 1, 2026, the foreign income (as described in section 480(b)(5)) of the student (and the student’s spouse, if applicable)

a student shall not be eligible for a Federal Pell Grant under this subsection for an academic year in which the student has a student aid index that equals or exceeds twice the amount of the total maximum Federal Pell Grant for such academic year.

The amendment made by paragraph (1) shall take effect on July 1, 2026.

Section 401(b)(1)(D) of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070a(b)(1)(D)) is amended— (A) by striking A student and inserting For each academic year beginning before July 1, 2026, a student; and (B) by inserting , as in effect for such academic year, after section 479A(b)(1)(B)(v).

Section 479A(b)(1)(B) of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1087tt(b)(1)(B)) is amended— (i) by striking clause (v); and (ii) by redesignating clauses (vi) and (vii) as clauses (v) and (vi), respectively. (B) Effective date The amendment made by subparagraph (A) shall take effect on July 1, 2026.

For the award year beginning on July 1, 2026, and each subsequent award year, the Secretary shall award grants (to be known as Workforce Pell Grants) to eligible students

a student shall meet the eligibility requirements for a Federal Pell Grant under this section, except that the student— (A) shall be enrolled, or accepted for enrollment, in an eligible program under section 481(b)(3)

may not— (i) be enrolled, or accepted for enrollment, in a program of study that leads to a graduate credential; or (ii) have attained such a credential.

a student who is eligible for a grant equal to less than the amount of the minimum Federal Pell Grant because the eligible workforce program in which the student is enrolled or accepted for enrollment is less than an academic year (in hours of instruction or weeks of duration) may still be eligible for a Workforce Pell Grant in an amount that is prorated based on the length of the program.

No eligible student described in paragraph (2) may concurrently receive a grant under both this subsection and— (A) subsection (b); or (B) subsection (c).

Any period of study covered by a Workforce Pell Grant awarded under this subsection shall be included in determining a student’s duration limit under subsection (d)(5).

the provisions of subsection (d)(2) shall not be applicable to eligible workforce programs

at least 150 clock hours of instruction, but less than 600 clock hours of instruction, or an equivalent number of credit hours, offered by an eligible institution during a minimum of 8 weeks, but less than 15 weeks

it is not offered as a correspondence course

the Governor of a State, after consultation with the State board, determines that the program— (I) provides an education aligned with the requirements of high-skill, high-wage

or in-demand industry sectors or occupations

meets the hiring requirements of potential employers in the sectors or occupations described in subclause (I)

either— (aa) leads to a recognized postsecondary credential that is stackable and portable across more than one employer; or (bb) with respect to students enrolled in the program— (AA) prepares such students for employment in an occupation for which there is only one recognized postsecondary credential; and (BB) provides such students with such a credential upon completion of such program;

that a student, upon completion of the program and enrollment in such a related certificate or degree program, will receive academic credit for the Workforce Pell program that will be accepted toward meeting such certificate or degree program requirements

the program has been offered by the eligible institution for not less than 1 year

for each award year, the program has a verified completion rate of at least 70 percent, within 150 percent of the normal time for completion; (III) for each award year, the program has a verified job placement rate of at least 70 percent, measured 180 days after completion

the total amount of the published tuition and fees of the program for such year is an amount that does not exceed the value-added earnings of students who received Federal financial aid under this title and who completed the program 3 years prior to the award year

the difference between— (aa) the median earnings of such students, as adjusted by the State and metropolitan area regional price parities of the Bureau of Economic Analysis based on the location of such program; and (bb) 150 percent of the poverty line applicable to a single individual

Section 401(b)(7)(A)(iii) of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070a(b)(7)(A)(iii)) is amended by striking $2,170,000,000 and inserting $12,670,000,000.

Beginning on July 1, 2026, and notwithstanding this subsection or subsection (b), a student shall not be eligible for a Federal Pell Grant under subsection (b) during any period for which the student receives grant aid from non-Federal sources, including States, institutions of higher education, or private sources, in an amount that equals or exceeds the student's cost of attendance for such period.

beginning July 1, 2026, the institution will comply with all requirements of subsection (c)

an institution of higher education subject to this subsection shall not use funds under this part for student enrollment in an educational program offered by the institution that is described in paragraph (2).

the program awards an undergraduate degree, graduate or professional degree, or graduate certificate, for which the median earnings (as determined by the Secretary) of the programmatic cohort of students who received funds under this title for enrollment in such program, who completed such program during the academic year that is 4 years before the year of the determination, who are not enrolled in any institution of higher education, and who are working, are, for not less than 2 of the 3 years immediately preceding the date of the determination, less than the median earnings of a working adult described in paragraph (3)

(i) is aged 25 to 34; (ii) is not enrolled in an institution of higher education; and (iii) (I) in the case of a determination made for an educational program that awards a baccalaureate or lesser degree, has only a high school diploma or its recognized equivalent; or (II) in the case of a determination made for a graduate or professional program, has only a baccalaureate degree.

with respect to an educational program that awards a baccalaureate or lesser degree— (I) for the State in which the institution is located; or (II) if fewer than 50 percent of the students enrolled in the institution reside in the State where the institution is located, for the entire United States

for the lowest median earnings of— (aa) a working adult in the State in which the institution is located; (bb) a working adult in the same field of study (as determined by the Secretary, such as by using the 2-digit CIP code) in the State in which the institution is located; and (cc) a working adult in the same field of study (as so determined) in the entire United States

if fewer than 50 percent of the students enrolled in the institution reside in the State where the institution is located, for the lower median earnings of— (aa) a working adult in the entire United States; or (bb) a working adult in the same field of study (as so determined) in the entire United States.

first, aggregate additional years of programmatic data in order to achieve a cohort of at least 30 individuals

aggregate additional cohort years of programmatic data for educational programs of equivalent length in order to achieve a cohort of at least 30 individuals.

An educational program shall not lose eligibility under this subsection unless the institution has had the opportunity to appeal

During such appeal, the Secretary may permit the educational program to continue to participate

for one year during the applicable covered period but has not yet failed to meet such requirements for 2 years during such covered period, the institution shall promptly inform each student enrolled in the educational program

after a period of not less than 2 years of such program's ineligibility, apply to regain such eligibility

Beginning on the date of enactment of this section, for loans that first originate before July 1, 2035, the provisions of subpart D of part 685 of title 34, Code of Federal Regulations (relating to borrower defense to repayment), as added or amended by the final regulations published by the Department of Education on November 1, 2022

shall not be in effect.

any regulations relating to borrower defense to repayment that took effect on July 1, 2020, are restored and revived as such regulations were in effect on such date.

Beginning on the date of enactment of this section, for loans that first originate before July 1, 2035, the provisions of sections 674.33(g), 682.402(d), and 685.214 of title 34, Code of Federal Regulations (relating to closed school discharges), as added or amended by the final regulations published by the Department of Education on November 1, 2022

shall not be in effect.

shall be in effect as if the amendments made by such final regulations had not been made.

there are appropriated to the National Endowment for the Humanities for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available through fiscal year 2028, $40,000,000 for the procurement of statues as described in Executive Order 13934 (85 Fed. Reg. 41165; relating to building and rebuilding monuments to American heroes), Executive Order 13978 (86 Fed. Reg. 6809; relating to building the National Garden of American Heroes), and Executive Order 14189 (90 Fed. Reg. 8849; relating to celebrating America’s birthday).

there is appropriated to the Office of Refugee Resettlement for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, $300,000,000, to remain available until September 30, 2028

The funds made available under subsection (a) may only be used

(A) the name of the potential sponsor and of all adult residents of the potential sponsor’s household; (B) the social security number or tax payer identification number of the potential sponsor and of all adult residents of the potential sponsor’s household; (C) the date of birth of the potential sponsor and of all adult residents of the potential sponsor’s household;

an in-person or virtual interview with, and suitability study concerning, the potential sponsor and all adult residents of the potential sponsor’s household

the results of all background and criminal records checks for the potential sponsor and for all adult residents of the potential sponsor’s household, which shall include, at a minimum, an investigation of the public records sex offender registry, a public records background check, and a national criminal history check based on fingerprints

(2) home studies of potential sponsors of unaccompanied alien children; (3) determining whether an unaccompanied alien child poses a danger to self or others by conducting an examination of the unaccompanied alien child for gang-related tattoos and other gang-related markings and covering such tattoos or markings while the child is in the care of the Office of Refugee Resettlement

data systems improvement and sharing that supports the health, safety, and well being of unaccompanied alien children by determining the appropriateness of potential sponsors of unaccompanied alien children and of adults residing in the household of the potential sponsor and by assisting with the identification and investigation of child labor exploitation and child trafficking

coordinating and communicating with State child welfare agencies regarding the placement of unaccompanied alien children

there is appropriated to the Commissioner of U.S. Customs and Border Protection for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029, $46,550,000,000

(1) Construction, installation, or improvement of new or replacement primary, waterborne, and secondary barriers. (2) Access roads. (3) Barrier system attributes, including cameras, lights, sensors, and other detection technology. (4) Any work necessary to prepare the ground at or near the border to allow U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct its operations, including the construction and maintenance of the barrier system.

$4,100,000,000, to remain available until September 30, 2029, to hire and train additional Border Patrol agents, Office of Field Operations officers, Air and Marine agents, rehired annuitants, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection field support personnel.

$2,052,630,000, to remain available until September 30, 2029, to provide recruitment bonuses, performance awards, or annual retention bonuses to eligible Border Patrol agents, Office of Field Operations officers, and Air and Marine agents.

$855,000,000, to remain available until September 30, 2029, for the repair of existing patrol units and the lease or acquisition of additional patrol units.

$5,000,000,000 for necessary expenses relating to lease, acquisition, construction, design, or improvement of facilities and checkpoints owned, leased, or operated by U.S. Customs and Border Protection.

None of the funds made available by subsection (a) may be used to recruit, hire, or train personnel for the duties of processing coordinators after October 31, 2028.

there is appropriated to U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029, $45,000,000,000, for single adult alien detention capacity and family residential center capacity.

Aliens may be detained at family residential centers, as described in subsection (a), pending a decision, under the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101 et seq.), on whether the aliens are to be removed from the United States and, if such aliens are ordered removed from the United States, until such aliens are removed.

the term family residential center means a facility used by the Department of Homeland Security to detain family units of aliens (including alien children who are not unaccompanied alien children

The detention standards for the single adult detention capacity described in subsection (a) shall be set in the discretion of the Secretary of Homeland Security, consistent with applicable law.

there is appropriated to the Commissioner of U.S. Customs and Border Protection for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029, $6,168,000,000

Procurement and integration of new nonintrusive inspection equipment and associated civil works

(2) Air and Marine operations’ upgrading and procurement of new platforms for rapid air and marine response capabilities. (3) Upgrades and procurement of border surveillance technologies along the southwest, northern, and maritime borders.

relating to the biometric entry and exit system

Screening persons entering or exiting the United States.

Initial screenings of unaccompanied alien children

(7) Enhancing border security by combating drug trafficking, including fentanyl and its precursor chemicals, at the southwest, northern, and maritime borders. (8) Commemorating efforts and events related to border security.

None of the funds made available under subsection (a) may be used for the procurement or deployment of surveillance towers along the southwest border and northern border that have not been tested and accepted by U.S. Customs and Border Protection to deliver autonomous capabilities.

there is appropriated to the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to remain available until September 30, 2029, to be administered under the State Homeland Security Grant Program

(A) $500,000,000 for State and local capabilities to detect, identify, track, or monitor threats from unmanned aircraft systems (as such term is defined in section 44801 of title 49, United States Code), consistent with titles 18 and 49 of the United States Code; (B) $625,000,000 for security and other costs related to the 2026 FIFA World Cup; (C) $1,000,000,000 for security, planning, and other costs related to the 2028 Olympics; and (D) $450,000,000 for the Operation Stonegarden Grant Program.

None of the funds made available under subparagraph (B) or (C) of paragraph (1) shall be subject to the requirements of section 2004(e)(1) or section 2008(a)(12) of the Homeland Security Act of 2002

there is appropriated for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, to the Department of Homeland Security for the State Border Security Reinforcement Fund established by paragraph (1), $10,000,000,000, to remain available until September 30, 2034

may provide grants from the fund established by paragraph (1) to State agencies and units of local governments for expenditures made for completed, ongoing, or new activities, in accordance with law, that occurred on or after January 20, 2021.

Construction or installation of a border wall, border fencing or other barrier, or buoys along the southern border of the United States

Any work necessary to prepare the ground at or near land borders to allow construction and maintenance of a border wall or other barrier fencing.

Detection and interdiction of illicit substances and aliens who have unlawfully entered the United States and have committed a crime under Federal, State, or local law, and transfer or referral of such aliens to the Department of Homeland Security as provided by law.

Relocation of aliens who are unlawfully present in the United States from small population centers to other domestic locations.

The Secretary shall begin to accept applications not later than 90 days after the date of the enactment of this Act.

Nothing in this subsection shall authorize any State or local government to exercise immigration or border security authorities reserved exclusively to the Federal Government

may use not more than 1 percent of the funds made available under this subsection for the purpose of administering grants

there is appropriated to the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, $300,000,000, to remain available until September 30, 2029, for the reimbursement of extraordinary law enforcement personnel costs

protection activities directly and demonstrably associated with any residence of the President

Funds appropriated under this section shall be available only for costs that a State or local agency— (1) incurred or incurs on or after July 1, 2024

(A) in excess of typical law enforcement operation costs; (B) directly attributable to the provision of protection described in this section; and (C) associated with a nongovernmental property designated pursuant to section 3 or 4 of the Presidential Protection Assistance Act of 1976

certifies to the Administrator as compensating protection activities requested by the United States Secret Service.

may use not more than 3 percent of the funds made available under this section for the purpose of administering grants

there are appropriated to the Secretary of Homeland Security for fiscal year 2025, out of any money in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, $10,000,000,000, to remain available until September 30, 2029, for reimbursement of costs incurred in undertaking activities in support of the Department of Homeland Security’s mission to safeguard the borders of the United States.

The term Director means the Director of the Office of Personnel Management.

Not later than 1 year after the date of enactment of this Act, the Director shall issue regulations and implement a process to verify

the veracity of any qualifying life event through which an enrollee in the Program seeks to add a member of family

that, when an enrollee in the Program seeks to add a member of family with respect to the enrollee to the health benefits plan of the enrollee under the Program, including during any open season, the individual so added is a qualifying member of family with respect to the enrollee.

In any fraud risk assessment conducted with respect to the Program on or after the date of enactment of this Act, the Director shall include an assessment of individuals who are enrolled in, or covered under, a health benefits plan under the Program even though those individuals are not eligible

During the 3-year period beginning on the date that is 1 year after the date of enactment of this Act, the Director shall carry out a comprehensive audit

Not later than 180 days after the date of enactment of this Act, the Director shall develop a process by which any individual enrolled in, or covered under, a health benefits plan under the Program who is not eligible to be so enrolled or covered shall be disenrolled or removed

the amounts required to be set aside under subsection (b)(2) shall not be subject to the limitations that may be specified annually by Congress

In fiscal year 2026, $66,000,000, to be derived from all contributions, and to remain available until the end of fiscal year 2035